The Two Gospels of the New Testament 12.03.2019

[Guojing]

Peter preached the gospel of this kingdom at Pentecost in its completed form. And it included Christ's death, burial, and resurrection. It was essentially Amillennialism.

Here is a pic that sums up the difference between what Peter preached and what Paul preached

 

[JLHargus]

Here is a pic that sums up the difference between what Peter preached and what Paul preached View attachment 295693

JL: Those books and verses prove nothing, if they do demonstrate it by posting some and how they teach two different gospels.

 

[Guojing]

JL: Those books and verses prove nothing, if they do demonstrate it by posting some and how they teach two different gospels.

Let's just take one particular verse and if you are keen, we can have a cordial discussion

John 20:31 was post cross, Jesus has already rose from the dead.

What did John write there about how one should believe about Christ, such that he might have eternal life?

MCQ: Was it

1. Believe that Christ died for your sins and rose again for your justification? or
2. Believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?

 

[JLHargus]

Guojing, post: Let's just take one particular verse and if you are keen, we can have a cordial discussion

John 20:31 was post cross, Jesus has already rose from the dead.

What did John write there about how one should believe about Christ, such that he might have eternal life?

MCQ: Was it

1. Believe that Christ died for your sins and rose again for your justification? or
2. Believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God? [/QUOTE]

JL post: [Jn20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.]KJV

 

[Guojing]

Guojing, post: Let's just take one particular verse and if you are keen, we can have a cordial discussion

John 20:31 was post cross, Jesus has already rose from the dead.

What did John write there about how one should believe about Christ, such that he might have eternal life?

MCQ: Was it

1. Believe that Christ died for your sins and rose again for your justification? or
2. Believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?

JL post: [Jn20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.]KJV[/QUOTE]

So John, even after cross, did not preach 1 Cor 15:1-4 for salvation.

Would you agree with that?

And even after you believe in the identity of Jesus, which is one of the rows in that picture I have shown, it is only that one "might" have life.

Why did John not use the term saved, as in a done deal, like what Paul would say in 1 Cor 15:1-4? Why does John used the term "might" as if salvation is still uncertain?

 

[JLHargus]

Guojing: JL posted: [Jn20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.]KJV

Guojing: So John, even after cross, did not preach 1 Cor 15:1-4 for salvation. Would you agree with that?

JL: It all depends on what you mean, if you are implying John did not teach the same gospel, then no, not at all? Even in 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel notion, saying whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

[1Cor15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain. 3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:5 And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve:6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep. 7 After that, he was seen of James; then of all the apostles.8 And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.9 For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me. 11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Guojing: And even after you believe in the identity of Jesus, which is one of the rows in that picture I have shown, it is only that one "might" have life. Why did John not use the term saved, as in a done deal, like what Paul would say in 1 Cor 15:1-4? Why does John used the term "might" as if salvation is still uncertain?

JL: The simple answer salvation is a lifetime pilgrimage not a OSAS event.

 

[Dan Perez]

Guojing: JL posted: [Jn20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.]KJV

Guojing: So John, even after cross, did not preach 1 Cor 15:1-4 for salvation. Would you agree with that?

JL: It all depends on what you mean, if you are implying John did not teach the same gospel, then no, not at all? Even in 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel notion, saying whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

[1Cor15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain. 3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:5 And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve:6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep. 7 After that, he was seen of James; then of all the apostles.8 And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.9 For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me. 11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Guojing: And even after you believe in the identity of Jesus, which is one of the rows in that picture I have shown, it is only that one "might" have life. Why did John not use the term saved, as in a done deal, like what Paul would say in 1 Cor 15:1-4? Why does John used the term "might" as if salvation is still uncertain?

JL: The simple answer salvation is a lifetime pilgrimage not a OSAS event.

Hi and in John 20:31 and the Greek words YE MIGHT BELIEVE / PISTEVO is in the AORIST NTENSE , ACTIVE VOICE and in the SUBJUSTIVE MOOD .

The SUBJUCATIVE MOOD means they MIGHT BELIEVE or will BELIEVE and this verse is CONTROLLED by the SUBJUCATIVE MOOD !

But when a person is BAPTISMA , by the HOLY SPIRIT , that person is always " in CHRIST " and there are about 111 verses that prove we are always " in Christ "

Here is just one , Gal 3:28 THE Greek words AREMIN CHRIST / ESTE , means that the Greek wod ARE /ESTE , is in the Greek PRESENT NTENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD .

The PRESENT TENSE , means that when a person is saved and placed into the BODY OF CHRIST you bare CONTOINUALLY " in Christ and the INDICATIVE MOOD means it is a FACT .

dan p

 

[JLHargus]

Dan Perez, post: Hi and in John 20:31 and the Greek words YE MIGHT BELIEVE / PISTEVO ismin the AORIST NTENSE , ACTIVE VOICE and in the SUBJUSTIVE MOOD .

The SUBJUCATIVE MOOD means they MIGHT BELIEVE or will BELIEVE and this versemis CONTROLLED by the SUBJUCATIVE MOOD !

But when a person is BAPTISMA , by the HOLY SPIRIT , that person is always " in CHRIST " and there are about 111 verses that prove we are always " in Christ "

Here is just one , Gal 3:28 THE Greek words AREMIN CHRIST / ESTE , means that the Greek wod ARE /ESTE , is in the Greek PRESENT NTENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD .

The PRESENT TENSE , means that when a person is saved and placed into the BODY OF CHRIST you bare CONTOINUALLY " in Christ and the INDICATIVE MOOD means it is a FACT .
dan p[/QUOTE]

JL: Give me a break. The following link is Bible Gateway with 63 English translations, post one that supports your theory.

John 20:31 - Bible Gateway

 

[Dan Perez]

Dan Perez, post: Hi and in John 20:31 and the Greek words YE MIGHT BELIEVE / PISTEVO ismin the AORIST NTENSE , ACTIVE VOICE and in the SUBJUSTIVE MOOD .

The SUBJUCATIVE MOOD means they MIGHT BELIEVE or will BELIEVE and this versemis CONTROLLED by the SUBJUCATIVE MOOD !

But when a person is BAPTISMA , by the HOLY SPIRIT , that person is always " in CHRIST " and there are about 111 verses that prove we are always " in Christ "

Here is just one , Gal 3:28 THE Greek words AREMIN CHRIST / ESTE , means that the Greek wod ARE /ESTE , is in the Greek PRESENT NTENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD .

The PRESENT TENSE , means that when a person is saved and placed into the BODY OF CHRIST you bare CONTOINUALLY " in Christ and the INDICATIVE MOOD means it is a FACT .
dan p

JL: Give me a break. The following link is Bible Gateway with 63 English translations, post one that supports your theory.

John 20:31 - Bible Gateway[/QUOTE]


Hi and give you a break , I did , so answer the post , and waiting if you will GIVE me a break ?

dan p

 

[Guojing]

JL: The simple answer salvation is a lifetime pilgrimage not a OSAS event.

Okay, so if you believe that, and you believe John also hold that view, that proves my point that there are fundamental differences between the 2 gospels, in the picture that I posted.

 

[JLHargus]

Dan Perez, posted: Hi and in John 20:31 and the Greek words YE MIGHT BELIEVE / PISTEVO ismin the AORIST NTENSE , ACTIVE VOICE and in the SUBJUSTIVE MOOD. The SUBJUCATIVE MOOD means they MIGHT BELIEVE or will BELIEVE and this versemis CONTROLLED by the SUBJUCATIVE MOOD !

JL: What is your point in conjugating the Greek, it adds nothing it is useless clutter? Those 63, Bible Gateway, English Bible translators knew how and have done the conjugation of the Greek into English? Rarely is it necessary to clarify a Greek word, sometimes if there is a great difference in translations. How does your conjugation clarify or change anything?

How does it change any of the 63 English translations of that verse? Might believe, may believe or will believe makes no difference one way or the other, Jn20:31 doesn't even remotely imply two different gospels, there is only one gospel for both Jew and Gentile.

In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

1Cor15:11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Dan: But when a person is BAPTISMA , by the HOLY SPIRIT , that person is always " in CHRIST " and there are about 111 verses that prove we are always " in Christ " Here is just one , Gal 3:28 THE Greek words AREMIN CHRIST / ESTE , means that the Greek wod ARE /ESTE , is in the Greek PRESENT NTENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD.

JL: What is noticeable, you didn't actually post any of those 111 verses only posting, book and verse such as Gal3:28. Below I posted the actual verse.

[Gal3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.]KJV

[Gal3:21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law. 22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe. 23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. 24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. 26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. 27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. 29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.]KJV

If Gal3:28 is your best out of 111, I can see why you never post the actual verses, you have also previously posted only book and verse 1Cor15:1-4 it also contradicted your claim, as I posted previously.

Dan: The PRESENT TENSE , means that when a person is saved and placed into the BODY OF CHRIST you bare CONTOINUALLY " in Christ and the INDICATIVE MOOD means it is a FACT.
dan p[/QUOTE]

JL: There is a simple way to prove it, posting a scripture saying what you claim. It is true when one is baptized they are indwelled by the Holy Spirit continuously unless they commit a sin unto death=mortal sin, then they must repent and confess their sins.

Paul doesn't agree with you, he seems to believe he could be a castaway. [1Cor9:26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that beateth the air: 27 But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.]

The link below shows 63 English translations of 1Cor9:27, they are more clear than KJV.
1 Corinthians 9:27 - Bible Gateway

Paul also doesn't agree with you in [1Cor15:1 Moreover brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.]KJV

[1Cor6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. 11-14 .... 15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. 16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.]KJV

[Rms6:`5 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. 16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?]KJV

[1Jn5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.]KJV

Scripture KJV Bible Gateway.

 

[JLHargus]

JL: The simple answer salvation is a lifetime pilgrimage not a OSAS event.

Guojing: Okay, so if you believe that, and you believe John also hold that view, that proves my point that there are fundamental differences between the 2 gospels, in the picture that I posted.

JL: I am open to read any evidence you may have.

 

[Dan Perez]

Dan Perez, posted: Hi and in John 20:31 and the Greek words YE MIGHT BELIEVE / PISTEVO ismin the AORIST NTENSE , ACTIVE VOICE and in the SUBJUSTIVE MOOD. The SUBJUCATIVE MOOD means they MIGHT BELIEVE or will BELIEVE and this versemis CONTROLLED by the SUBJUCATIVE MOOD !

JL: What is your point in conjugating the Greek, it adds nothing it is useless clutter? Those 63, Bible Gateway, English Bible translators knew how and have done the conjugation of the Greek into English? Rarely is it necessary to clarify a Greek word, sometimes if there is a great difference in translations. How does your conjugation clarify or change anything?

How does it change any of the 63 English translations of that verse? Might believe, may believe or will believe makes no difference one way or the other, Jn20:31 doesn't even remotely imply two different gospels, there is only one gospel for both Jew and Gentile.

In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

1Cor15:11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Dan: But when a person is BAPTISMA , by the HOLY SPIRIT , that person is always " in CHRIST " and there are about 111 verses that prove we are always " in Christ " Here is just one , Gal 3:28 THE Greek words AREMIN CHRIST / ESTE , means that the Greek wod ARE /ESTE , is in the Greek PRESENT NTENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD.

JL: What is noticeable, you didn't actually post any of those 111 verses only posting, book and verse such as Gal3:28. Below I posted the actual verse.

[Gal3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.]KJV

[Gal3:21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law. 22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe. 23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. 24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. 26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. 27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. 29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.]KJV

If Gal3:28 is your best out of 111, I can see why you never post the actual verses, you have also previously posted only book and verse 1Cor15:1-4 it also contradicted your claim, as I posted previously.

Dan: The PRESENT TENSE , means that when a person is saved and placed into the BODY OF CHRIST you bare CONTOINUALLY " in Christ and the INDICATIVE MOOD means it is a FACT.
dan p

JL: There is a simple way to prove it, posting a scripture saying what you claim. It is true when one is baptized they are indwelled by the Holy Spirit continuously unless they commit a sin unto death=mortal sin, then they must repent and confess their sins.

Paul doesn't agree with you, he seems to believe he could be a castaway. [1Cor9:26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that beateth the air: 27 But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.]

The link below shows 63 English translations of 1Cor9:27, they are more clear than KJV.
1 Corinthians 9:27 - Bible Gateway

Paul also doesn't agree with you in [1Cor15:1 Moreover brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.]KJV

[1Cor6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. 11-14 .... 15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. 16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.]KJV

[Rms6:`5 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. 16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?]KJV

[1Jn5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.]KJV

Scripture KJV Bible Gateway.[/QUOTE]


Hi and you are saying that IN English , Nouns and Adjectives , past tense and future tense are just a waste of TIME to learn ?

The Greek mtext has TENSES , VOICES , MOODS , AND CASES , learn and buy a book by WILLIAN D MOUNCE and it will teach you , by thenway , the book is called GREEK for the REST OF US and even has a HEBREW section , and can be brought on line !!

dan p

dan p

 

[Guojing]

In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

He doesn't mean there is only one gospel.

He meant that for the gentiles, they are to believe only the gospel of the uncircumcision. In Galatians 2:7-9, this was agreed upon by James and Paul.

Otherwise, the exchange by James, the elders and Paul in Acts 21:18-25 will make little sense. Paul would have told them, based on your doctrine, "There is only one gospel, which is the gospel I preach, circumcision and keeping the law make Christ of no effect."

 

[JLHargus]

JL: In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.

Guojing: He doesn't mean there is only one gospel.

He meant that for the gentiles, they are to believe only the gospel of the uncircumcision. In Galatians 2:7-9, this was agreed upon by James and Paul.

Otherwise, the exchange by James, the elders and Paul in Acts 21:18-25 will make little sense. Paul would have told them, based on your doctrine, "There is only one gospel, which is the gospel I preach, circumcision and keeping the law make Christ of no effect."[/QUOTE]

JL: Then please demonstrate what he meant with actual scriptural evidence, not book and verse only. Actually Paul disagrees totally with you.

[1Cor12:12 For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. 13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.]KJV

[Mt24:11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many. 12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold. 13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved. 14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.]KJV


[Eph3:3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, 4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) 5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; 6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:]KJV

[1Cor15:11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Scripture KJV Bible Gateway

 

[Guojing]

JL: Then please demonstrate what he meant with actual scriptural evidence, not book and verse only. Actually Paul disagrees totally with you.

[1Cor12:12 For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. 13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.]KJV

[Mt24:11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many. 12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold. 13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved. 14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.]KJV


[Eph3:3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, 4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) 5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; 6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:]KJV

[1Cor15:11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?]KJV

Scripture KJV Bible Gateway

Yes, in the Body of Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile.

But the gospel of the kingdom, that Jesus spoke about is not for the Body of Christ, its meant for Israel (Matthew 10:5-7).

The mystery of the Body of Christ was not revealed by Jesus during the 4 gospels, it was until Israel rejected Christ for the final time, when they stoned Stephen, that the ascended Christ appeared to Paul to reveal to him this mystery, as you quoted from Ephesians 3, for the Body of Christ.

 

[JLHargus]

Before I answer you above I would like for you to answer my previous post;

JL: In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.


Guojing: He doesn't mean there is only one gospel.

He meant that for the gentiles, they are to believe only the gospel of the uncircumcision. In Galatians 2:7-9, this was agreed upon by James and Paul.

Otherwise, the exchange by James, the elders and Paul in Acts 21:18-25 will make little sense. Paul would have told them, based on your doctrine, "There is only one gospel, which is the gospel I preach, circumcision and keeping the law make Christ of no effect."[/QUOTE]

JL: Then please demonstrate what he meant with actual scriptural evidence, not book and verse only. Actually Paul disagrees totally with you.

 

[Guojing]

Before I answer you above I would like for you to answer my previous post;

JL: In 1Cor15:1-11 Paul eliminates a two gospel theory saying, whether I or they=apostles, so we preach.


Guojing: He doesn't mean there is only one gospel.

He meant that for the gentiles, they are to believe only the gospel of the uncircumcision. In Galatians 2:7-9, this was agreed upon by James and Paul.

Otherwise, the exchange by James, the elders and Paul in Acts 21:18-25 will make little sense. Paul would have told them, based on your doctrine, "There is only one gospel, which is the gospel I preach, circumcision and keeping the law make Christ of no effect."

JL: Then please demonstrate what he meant with actual scriptural evidence, not book and verse only. Actually Paul disagrees totally with you.[/QUOTE]

I already used Galatians 2:7-9 kjv
to indicate the 2 gospels

if that is not enough for you, the picture I used has more scripture

actually, in your opinion, Paul disagrees with me. You are of course free to have your opinions

 

[JLHargus]

Guojing: Yes, in the Body of Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile. But the gospel of the kingdom, that Jesus spoke about is not for the Body of Christ, its meant for Israel (Matthew 10:5-7).

The mystery of the Body of Christ was not revealed by Jesus during the 4 gospels, it was until Israel rejected Christ for the final time, when they stoned Stephen, that the ascended Christ appeared to Paul to reveal to him this mystery, as you quoted from Ephesians 3, for the Body of Christ.

JL: Yet in Eph 3:4-5 Paul explicitly tells us the mystery was revealed to the apostles.

[Eph 3:4 .... the mystery of Christ .... 5 .... other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

What is that mystery revealed to the apostles? Gentiles should be fellow heirs. Fellow heirs with whom and what?

Fellow heirs with Jews in the kingdom of God, the one and only regenerated Davidic kingdom, the Israel of God Gal 6:16, the body and bride of the Lamb, New heavenly Jerusalem=Church, Rv21:1-8. That's why Christ chose twelve apostles, signifying the restoration of all Israel=twelve tribes. All, Both Jew and Gentile must be in Christ=saved, through the circumcision of the heart, which makes all the saved spiritual Israelites and heirs, there is neither Jew nor Greek.

[Rms2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: 29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.]KJV Gal4:26 But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all.]KJV

[Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power: 11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: 12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.]KJV

[Gal6:15 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature. 16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.]KJV

[Mt 21:43 Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. 44 And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. 45 And when the chief priests and Pharisees had heard his parables, they perceived that he spake of them.]KJV

[Gal2:21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.]KJV

Sorry about the delay, I am in Florida and may or may not post much or far in between posts.

 

[Guojing]

Guojing: Yes, in the Body of Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile. But the gospel of the kingdom, that Jesus spoke about is not for the Body of Christ, its meant for Israel (Matthew 10:5-7).

The mystery of the Body of Christ was not revealed by Jesus during the 4 gospels, it was until Israel rejected Christ for the final time, when they stoned Stephen, that the ascended Christ appeared to Paul to reveal to him this mystery, as you quoted from Ephesians 3, for the Body of Christ.

JL: Yet in Eph 3:4-5 Paul explicitly tells us the mystery was revealed to the apostles.

[Eph 3:4 .... the mystery of Christ .... 5 .... other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

What is that mystery revealed to the apostles? Gentiles should be fellow heirs. Fellow heirs with whom and what?

Sorry about the delay, I am in Florida and may or may not post much or far in between posts.

There was more apostles in the Jerusalem HQ than just the 12, Barnabas, James brother of Jesus etc.

So you cannot use Ephesians 3:4-5 to establish that the 12 was also revealed the mystery.

Furthermore, if that mystery was also revealed to Peter, his response to Cornelius in Acts 10:28 would make no sense, and he would have also used that revelation of the mystery when the fellow Jewish believers questioned him in Acts 11.