The Times We Live in...

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JimD
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Can you imagine Eve replying to God "the snake made me do it" when it was actually her own lust of her eye, lust of her flesh and her pride of life. Now you know who I believe the snake is a figure of. Our fleshly nature of course but you will undoubtedly gobblie goop and grammerize this to death also : ) Arn't you going to be surprised when we get to heaven and God says to you, Clare, I hate to bust your bubble but Jim was on to something and you did not get it : )
 
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misput

JimD
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Is your memory shorter than mine?

Was I not asked twice to look into it, both times replying that it wasn't important to me and I wasn't interested in doing so, and then changed my mind because it seemed important to you?
At 82 yrs it is getting pretty short.

I'm disappointed to hear that. . .I had you for a serious inquirer. . .but then reading between the lines has always escaped me, as you say grammar escapes you.
Not sure that I am interested in pursuing for the sake of entertainment.
Scripture is not my entertainment.
It's not mine either but debating others is very entertaining.

Then you haven't been at it long enough. . .because, for one, the sovereignty of God is not simplistic, as Paul demonstrates in Romans 9:18-21.
I said usually, not always. I am not the only one slipping a cog , am I?
I guess the grammatical construction got me again, because your statement
"the tree equates to the beginning of the Law" means "the tree = the beginning of the Law."

I'm sorry if the Biblical record is gobbleldy gook for you, but it is the mind of God for me, and it presents the law beginning with Moses, not the tree.
You skipped over the most important statement I made explaining this, I guess it meant nothing to you. Oh well, the hazards of debating in this setting : (
God wasn't talking
to Eve in Genesis 3:15, he was talking to the serpent, Satan.
God was talking about Eve to the serpent, promising that her seed would crush his head.

I think Eve thought it meant she would have a child in fulfillment of the promise, and when Cain was born she thought he was the fulfillment (Genesis 4:1). No, I do not think Eve saw Christ in the promise.
Oops slipped another cog but you got my drift, way to go Clare

So you see similarity in Eve
not knowing the nature of the promise, and in Adam not knowing the tree was a foreshadow?
I think you might have missed my drift on this one.

And the same way you did to "shame me," which is why I used it. . .
All in fun : )
 
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Clare73

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Can you imagine Eve replying to God "the snake made me do it" when it was actually her own lust of her eye, lust of her flesh and her pride of life.
I can imagine her replying, "The snake deceived me. . .and (so). . .I ate." (Genesis 3:13)
Now you know who I believe the snake is a figure of . Our fleshly nature of course but you will undoubtedly gobblie goop and grammerize this to death also : )
Actually, I will simply refer you to Revelation 12:9, 20:2.

It's really regretable that you see the holy word of God as gobbledy gook.
Arn't you going to be surprised when we get to heaven and God says to you, Clare, I hate to bust your bubble but Jim was on to something and you did not get it : )
And my response will be, "Lord, my Love, I chose to believe your precious word in Revelation 12:9, 20:2."
 
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Clare73

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At 82 yrs it is getting pretty short.
Check it again. . .
It's not mine either but debating others is very entertaining.

I said usually, not always. I am not the only one slipping a cog , am I?
You skipped over the most important statement I made explaining this, I guess it meant nothing to you.
And that would be?
Oh well, the hazards of debating in this setting : (
Oops slipped another cog but you got my drift, way to go Clare

I think you might have missed my drift on this one.

All in fun : )
 
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Clare73

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Note: we are discussing beginnings here.
Not just the law, but everything begins in the Garden: righteousness (sinless), morally free will, law, sin, spiritual and physical death, fallen nature (sinful), condemnation, redemption by faith in the promise (Genesis 3:15, Jesus Christ).

The whole ball of wax starts there.
 
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misput

JimD
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Not just the law, but everything begins in the Garden: righteousness (sinless), morally free will, law, sin, spiritual and physical death, fallen nature (sinful), condemnation, redemption by faith in the promise (Genesis 3:15, Jesus Christ).

The whole ball of wax starts there.
Makes sense to me. We just arrive at those conclusions in different ways. isn't that strange?
 
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Clare73

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Makes sense to me. We just arrive at those conclusions in different ways. isn't that strange?
I arrive at them by seeing them actually there:

righteousness -- by creation
morally free will -- righteous disposition by creation
law -- God's command
sin -- Adam's disobedience
spiritual death -- proven by physical death
fallen nature -- loss of righteousness
morally compromised will -- disposition to sin
condemnation -- result of sin
redemption -- by faith in the promise (Genesis 3:15, Jesus Christ)

How do you arrive at them?
 
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misput

JimD
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I arrive at them by seeing them actually there:

righteousness -- state of Adam's creation
morally free will -- state of Adam's righteous disposition
law -- God's command
sin -- Adam's disobedience
spiritual death -- proven by physical death
fallen nature -- loss of righteousness
condemnation -- result of sin
redemption -- by faith in the promise (Genesis 3:15, Jesus Christ)

How do you arrive at them?
Pretty much the same way until we begin discussing the details, grammar and so forth : )
 
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misput

JimD
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They are all straight forward for me.
Great, then how do you get born in sin from this verse:
Ro 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Or do you need other scripture to draw that conclusion?
 
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Clare73

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Great, then how do you get born in sin from this verse:
Ro 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Or do you need other scripture to draw that conclusion?
It is contained in Romans 5:12, but not in the way we think (all commited sin), which we understand correctly when we understand his argument there.

It comes from two other Scriptures, which argument includes Romans 5:12.
You're in territory of Paul here which Peter describes: "His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort," (2 Peter 3:16).

1) It comes from Romans 5:18: "the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men," which is part of Paul's two parallels contrasting the first Adam's sin to the second Adam's (Christ) righteousness, both sin and righteousnes being accounted (imputed) to men:
Adam's sin to all those born of Adam, and Christ's righteousness to all those born of Christ, just as Abraham's faith was credited/accounted (imputed--logizomai) to him as righteousness (Romans 4:22).

Where Romans 5:18 is the conclusion of Paul's argument in Romans 5:12-14, that
the wages of sin = death (Romans 6:23),
sin is transgression of the law,
where there is no law, there is no sin,
yet all those from Adam to Moses died (always the result of sin--"sin was in the world")
when there was no law to sin against.

So what sin caused their death?
It was the sin of Adam, accounted to them, and to all those born of Adam (Romans 5:18).

2) It comes from Ephesians 2:3: all "are by (fallen) nature (birth) ojects of wrath."
 
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misput

JimD
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I get it from two other Scriptures, which argument includes Romans 5:12.
You're in territory of Paul which Peter describes: "His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort," (2 Peter 3:16).

1) I get it from Romans 5:18: "the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men," which is part of Paul's two parallels contrasting the first Adam's sin to the second Adam's (Christ) righteousness, both sin and righteousnes being accounted (imputed) to men:
Adam's sin to all those born of Adam, and Christ's righteousness to all those born of Christ, just as Abraham's faith was credited/accounted (imputed--logizomai) to him as righteousness (Romans 4:22).

Where Romans 5:18 is the conclusion of Paul's argument in Romans 5:12-14, that
the wages of sin = death (Romans 6:23),
sin is transgression of the law,
where there is no law, there is no sin,
yet all those from Adam to Moses died (always the result of sin--"sin was in the world")
when there was no law to sin against.

So what sin caused their death?
It was the sin of Adam, accounted to them, and to all those born of Adam (Romans 5:18).

2) All "are by (fallen) nature (birth) ojects of wrath" (Ephesians 2:3).

Clearly all are born with a fleshly, sinful nature but nowhere does scripture indicate that equates to being a sinner or sin being imputed to anyone. As Paul says in Romans 5:12 death spread to all men, because all sinned. The way I understand it being a sinner means we know good from bad and chose to do bad. Having a fleshly nature by itself does not make anyone a sinner or expose them to God's wrath until it manifest itself in sin. Suggesting that Eph. 2:3 is saying little children are living in the lust of their flesh and indulging in the desires of the flesh and of the mind suggests you are promoting an extremely weak doctrine.
 
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Clare73

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Clearly all are born with a fleshly, sinful nature but nowhere does scripture indicate that equates to being a sinner or sin being imputed to anyone. As Paul says in Romans 5:12 death spread to all men, because all sinned.
Well now you are in a conundrum, because Romans 5:14 states "they did not sin by transgressing the law."

You went zipping right through this NT teaching, without giving it due consideration, didn't you?
And that's why we do "nitty gritty," because in your understanding of this, Scripture clearly contradicts itself. So back to the drawing board:

the wages of sin = death (Romans 6:23),
sin is transgression of the law (1 John 3:4),
where there is no law, there is no transgression/sin (Romans 4:15),
yet. . .all those from Adam to Moses died
--(death always and only the result of sin; i.e., "sin was in the world," Romans 5:13)-- when there was no law to sin against--they did not sin by transgressing the law (Romans 5:14).

Your conundrum: all sinned. . .they did not sin. . .in the very same passage!

Shall I stop here. . .or shall I do "nitty gritty" to arrive at the correct understanding of the NT teaching? I'm thinkin' you might just be ready for some "nitty gritty" to resolve the two.

Biblical principle:
sin is transgression of the law (1 John 3:4), nothing more and nothing less.

"All sinned" does not mean they all committed sin, it means they were all guilty of sin.
But guilty of
what sin. . .when sin is transgression of the law and there is no law to transgress, therefore, "they did not sin."

Romans 5:15 - "The many died by the trespass of one man."
Romans 5:17 - "By the trespass of one man, death reigned through that one man"
Romans 5:18,
"the result of one trespass was condemnation (sentence of judgment) for all men."

Those between Adam and Moses all died because the sin/guilt of Adam was accounted/reckoned/imputed to them (all sinned), even though they did not sin by transgressing the law (Romans 5:18).

This is the meaning of
"because all sinned" and "they did not sin," regarding mankind between Adam and Moses.
And any other interpretation/understanding of this passage must reconcile the opposing phrases used to describe the same people, in consistency with the context of the passsage.


Therefore, men are not just sinners, they are condemned, from birth. . .by nature objects of wrath
(Ephesians 2:3) because of the sin of Adam accounted/reckoned (logzomaie--imputed) to all men, to all those born of Adam.

This is the apostolic teaching of the NT. . .the way "we understand it" not-with-standing.

The way I understand it being a sinner means we know good from bad and chose to do bad. Having a fleshly nature by itself does not make anyone a sinner or expose them to God's wrath until it manifest itself in sin. Suggesting that Eph. 2:3 is saying little children are living in the lust of their flesh and indulging in the desires of the flesh and of the mind suggests you are promoting an extremely weak doctrine.
 
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Salvadore

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According to God He did physically.
Reckoned and reality are two different things. Jesus physically was a descendant of Adam and Eve. That is why He could be tempted the same as us. Spiritually He was God in the flesh, called Son of God, God with us, was with God in the beginning, was God. That is why He could resist sin. That's my story and I am sticking to it : )

Are you saying God can be tempted? Or Jesus?
 
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JimD
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Well now you are in a conundrum, because Romans 5:14 states "they did not sin by transgressing the law."
Of course they did not sin by breaking the law as in the likeness of Adam but as Paul explained they became a law unto themselves and by what they knew of God written in their heart and through creation and their conscience they did sin and were without excuse being condemned by these laws and will ultimately be judged by the Gospel!



 
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Clare73

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Of course they did not sin by breaking the law as in the likeness of Adam but as Paul explained they became a law unto themselves and by what they knew of God written in their heart and
through creation and their conscience they did sin and were without excuse being condemned by these laws and will ultimately be judged by the Gospel!
Nice gloss. . .however,

Romans 1:18-32 regarding the evidence of God in creation and
Romans 2:14-15 regarding the law of conscience as the principle by which Gentiles will be judged in the final judgment (Romans 2:16), not judged by the gospel, have nothing to do with

"The result of one trespass was condemnation for all men" (Romans 5:18), which is about the guilt (of Adam's transgression of God's express command) being transmitted (imputed) to and condemning all mankind from birth, who "by nature (birth) are objects of wrath" (Ephesians 2:3), and has nothing to do with evidence in creation, or the conscience of the Gentiles by which conscience they are judged (and not judged by the gospel).

This is failure to take Scripture at its word in Romans 5:18, which failure is the source of most denominational error, as in the error you present here.

Are you operating in good faith here, or do you really just not understand?
 
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misput

JimD
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Nice gloss. . .however,

Romans 1:18-32 regarding the evidence of God in creation and
Romans 2:14-15 regarding the law of conscience as the principle by which Gentiles will be judged in the final judgment (Romans 2:16), not judged by the gospel, have nothing to do with

"The result of one trespass was condemnation for all men" (Romans 5:18), which is about the guilt (of Adam's transgression of God's express command) being transmitted (imputed) to and condemning all mankind from birth, who "by nature (birth) are objects of wrath" (Ephesians 2:3), and has nothing to do with evidence in creation, or conscience of the Gentiles (who are not judged by the gospel).

Are you operating in good faith here, or do you really just not understand?
God Bless Clare : )
 
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misput

JimD
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Clare, here is a man (Albert Barns) who does know grammar and can get into the nitty gritty explaining what I was trying to explain to you about Romans 5:12. I know you will not agree with him but I thought you might like to know precisely what I believe:
And so. Thus. In this way it is to be accounted for that death has passed upon all men; to wit, because all men have sinned. As death followed sin in the first transgression, so it has in all; for all have sinned. There is a connexion between death and sin which existed in the case of Adam, and which subsists in regard to all who sin, And as all have sinned, so death has passed on all men.

Death passed upon. (dihlyen). Passed through; pervaded; spread over the whole race, as pestilence passes through, or pervades a nation. Thus death, with its train of woes, with its withering and blighting influence, has passed through the world, laying prostrate all before it.

Upon all men. Upon the race; all die.

For that (ef w). This expression has been greatly controverted; and has been very variously translated. Elsner renders it, “on account of whom.” Doddridge, “unto which all have sinned.” The Latin Vulgate renders it, “in whom [Adam] all have sinned.” The same rendering has been given by Augustine, Beza, etc. But it has never yet been shown that our translators have rendered the expression improperly. The old Syriac and the Arabic agree with the English translation fix this interpretation. With this agree Calvin, Vatablus, Erasmus, etc. And this rendering is sustained also by many other considerations.

1. If (w) be a relative pronoun here, it would refer naturally to death, as its antecedent, and not to man. But this would not make sense.

2. If this had been its meaning, the preposition (en) would have been used. See Note of Erasmus on the place.

3. It comports with the apostle’s argument to state a cause why all died, and not to state that men sinned in Adam. He was inquiring into the cause why death was in the world; and it would not account for that to say that all sinned in Adam. It would require an additional statement to see how that could be a cause.

4. As his posterity had not then an existence, they could not commit actual transgression. Sin is the transgression of the law by a moral agent; and as the interpretation "because all have sinned" meets the argument of the apostle, and as the Greek favours that certainly as much as it does the other, it is to be preferred.

All have sinned. To sin is to transgress the law of God; to do wrong. The apostle in this expression does not say that all have sinned in Adam, or that their nature has become corrupt, which is true, but which is not affirmed here; nor that the sin of Adam is imputed to them; but simply affirms that all men have sinned. He speaks evidently of the great universal fact that all men are sinners. He is not settling a metaphysical difficulty; nor does he speak of the condition of man as he comes into the world. He speaks as other men would; he addresses himself to the common sense of the world; and is discoursing of universal, well-known facts. Here is the fact—that all men experience calamity, condemnation, death. How is this to be accounted for? The answer is, “All have sinned.” This is a sufficient answer; it meets the case. And as his design cannot be shown to be to discuss a metaphysical question about the nature of man, or about the character of infants, the passage should be interpreted according to his design, and should not be pressed to bear on that of which he says nothing, and to which the passage evidently has no reference. I understand it, therefore, as referring to the fact that men sin in their own persons, sin themselves—as, indeed, how can they sin in any other way?—and that therefore they die. If men maintain that it refers to any metaphysical properties of the nature of man, or to infants, they should not infer or suppose this, but should show distinctly that it is in the text. Where is there evidence of any such reference?
PS: I do not need a reply if all you are going to do is repeat what you have already presented to me. I understand perfectly what you believe and why you believe it. I have enjoyed digging into this with you, thank you.
 
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