Douggg,Jgr, you referred to Jeremiah 25, 43. In both of those particular passages God specifically stated that he was sending the Babylonians as His instrument. Was God the God of the Babylonians? If not, why would you consider Jesus the prince of Romans?
If pagan Babylonians could be described as God's servants for purposes of executing His judgments, why could not pagan Romans be described as Messiah's people for purposes of executing His judgments?
Keep in mind also the role and responsibility of Messiah's people the Jews themselves in the destruction.
Either scenario is sufficient to fulfill Daniel's prophecy.
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