Maybe you can help me with this perplexing question, since BobRyan seems unable to:
If, as Paul said, the Gentiles never had the
letter of the law, then how are they able to fulfill the
righteous requirements of the law?
“For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts” -- (
Romans 2:14-15).
There is no doubt that Paul is referring to the
letter of the
10 Commandments:
1. Law written on their hearts - Romans 2
2. Romans 1 - shows that they know the judgment of God is upon them.
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, 19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. 20 F
or since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. 21 For
even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they
became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened. 22 Professing to be wise, they became fools, 23 and exchanged the glory of the incorruptible God for an image in the form of corruptible man and of birds and four-footed animals and crawling creatures.
..
28 And just
as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29 being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice;
they are gossips, 30 slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31 without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32 and
although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.
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Christ said - "If you were blind you would have no sin... but you say "we see"..."
Christians cannot use pagans that have no access to the Bible as their "high standard for morals and light"
You are just copy and pasting scriptures without offering any meaningful explanation.
It is true that instead of "re-typing the text letter by letter" to get it included as the obvious answer to your question - I use ctl-c and ctl-v to copy paste the very same text I would be typing letter-by-letter. (Surely the "process being less labor intensive" to get the answer posted is not your complaint -- is it???)
Is this your answer to my original question?
Obviously yes since BOTH texts explicitly point to gentiles knowing about the LAW of God -
Actually, Paul did say in Romans 2 that the
Gentiles were obeying the
requirements of the law from their heats:
“For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature the things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts” -- (
Romans 2:14-15).
Paul is saying that Gentiles obey the requirements of the law from their hearts, even though they do not have the law.
How?
Holy Spirit... New Covenant "I will write my LAW on the heart".
And Romans 2 points this out as already quoted.
Romans 2 - INSTEAD he says this --
25 For indeed
circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a transgressor of the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision. 26 So
if the uncircumcised man keeps the requirements of the Law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision? 27 And he who is physically uncircumcised,
if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter
of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law? 28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh. 29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.
The answer is simple. We see them "every Sabbath in the synagogues" both Jews and gentiles in Acts 18:4 - hearing GOSPEL preaching.
I hope you understood the explanation you just gave, because I certainly didn't.
I hope you can point to where the confusion could possibly exist.
I the verses you just quoted, Paul is saying that uncircumcised Gentiles who obey the
righteous requirements of the law (
love) will put to shame those who have the
letter of the law but do not obey the
righteous requirements of the law:
“If those who are not circumcised keep the righteous requirements of the law, will they not be regarded as though they were circumcised? The one who is not circumcised physically and yet fulfills the law will condemn you who, even though you have the written letter and circumcision, are a transgressor of the law.” -- (
Romans 2:26-29).
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The answer between these gentiles in Acts 18:4 and the Jews in Acts 18:4 is found in Romans 3.
Romans 3
Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? 2
Great in every respect. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.
Paul accounts the JEWS with having the scriptures , the Word of God, the Commandments of God - the written text given to them as the nation-church-evangelists charged with world wide evangelism to the gentiles.
