By its results. By their ability to produce succesfull results.
It produces results, but to label them 'succesful' is begging the question.
One is a scientific identification of demonstrable mental health problems in reality, including treatments to counter and/or diminish them. The other is nothing like that.
Ah, but this is adding information to your original statement which merely pointed to its existence. So you agree your initial reasoning was deficient then in this instance.
Just to point out though, Medicine in general and Psychiatry are not scientific systems. Medicine often says it is an Art. They utilise EBM, evidence-based medicine, which is an empiric system based on statistical evaluation and confidence interval to determine treatments and suggest causes. This is neither repeatable nor falsifiable due to ethical constraints on running studies again with negative outcomes and to exclude bias it minimises or ignores the standard hypothesis-testing system of Scientific Method in favour of systematic review and meta-analyses. In essence, a lot of psychiatry falls outside the purview of 'Science' on account of this. Read Cochrane medical studies and you will read a lot about 'best evidence' or 'evidence class', but precious little the terms 'science' or 'scientific'.
No. Anti-psychotic medicine are pretty effective in ending psychotic episodes.
The longer someone remains psychotic, the more chance of brain damage - which, ironically, has detrimental effect on cognitive faculties.
Do you know what the term 'psychosis' means? It means a disconnection from reality. How do we determine reality though? There are personality disorders like Schizotypal where certain acts like a lucky baseball cap is thought to act in reality or narcisists that really think themselves perfect. These are in a sense mild psychoses, not disorganised but still. When a floridly psychotic individual is brought out of that state, he is termed apsychotic but this does not mean his psychotic episode has ended until thought form has been restored, until he ceases to have tangential or circumferential or referential thought - no antipsychotic will do this. They merely end his hallucination or severe disorganisation and it is then that correction can be brought about.
Anti-psychotic medicines fall in two classes. These are typicals and atypicals, which broadly act on dopamine receptors and 5HT receptors. No antipsychotic has ever been found that does not act on d2 receptors however. These receptors are related to emotion and perception and no connection to reasoning as such has been demonstrated outside of associations to depressive or manic states and even here the evidence is ambigious.
Now Ketamine acts on NMDA receptors and can elicited a state very much similar to psychosis. It creates a dissociative state that is also amenable to some antipsychotics, to a lesser or greater extent. Thought form however is unaltered. Logical relation remains intact. No connection here has however been shown to dopamine or serotonin in the same manner as in psychosis. The theory of HOW psychosis emerges is very much up in the air, from glutamate-derived pathways through genetic susceptibility though psychological triggering in susceptible patients. Such broad statements that you are making is simply poor understanding of the literature.
As to cognitive function, ever heard of neuroplasticity? The brain adapts according to what pathways are used and in what manner. Long term antipsychotics cause improvement in cognitive function, as does psychosis cause worsening, but this is through the brain strengthening or demyelinating the relevant neuronal axons. Whether the drugs cause this we simply don't know. It may be the apsychotic state that allows correction, allows neuroplastic regeneration as likely as any pharmacologic action. Similarly with psychosis, which may be the trigger but not root cause of cognitive decline. It is a bit of a catch 22.
That is just false. The cognitive therapies are done in an attempt to reverse the damaging effects of psychosis. It is also part of preventive therapy so that people suffering from schizofrenia, for example, learn to recognise the signs of entering a new psychosis - so that they can start up medication immediatly and not wait until the psychosis is full blown accute.
CBT reverses the cognitive deterioration and helps people realise when entering a new psychosis? How is this not treating the underlying illness? I don't understand your objection to what I said.
Anyway, many studies have shown that CBT is useful and advantageous in all stages of psychosis, acute or chronic. No psychiatric institution on this earth does not offer psychological treatment concommittently with medication, so to champion the one over the other here seems foolish. As stated above, thought form is not altered by medication. We cannot suddenly stop a depressive from interpreting things in the most negative light possible or a paranoid schizophrenic from associating things to his deusions by medications alone, nor can medication suddenly evaporate delusions. If this were the case, then we would inject risperdal in casualty and send people on their way, instead of having to admit them for weeks at a time for multiple therapies to take effect.
I note that you didn't comment on the Sye Ten remark. I also note that this question here falls completely in line with Sye Ten style nonsense.
I am sorry, I don't know who or what Sye Ten is. I don't understand the relevance nor could quickly find something to explain it to me when googling.
Mental health.
To mention that, seems like an admission that you agree that faulty cognitive faculties are a health problem. Which implies that cognitive faculties have physical underpinnings in the brain.
All the available evidence suggests that reasoning is what the brain does.
So that's what I'm going with.
If you wish to suggest some other mysterious thing as the underpinning of reasoning, by my guest. Don't forget the supportive evidence.
Let's turn it around maybe...
So, what, in your opinion, does the brain do - if not thinking, reasoning, etc?
I agree there are physical components. I have been at pains to constantly say not SOLELY derived from the material. The evidence for a purely neurological basis is simply lacking however. I discussed this in another thread and another poster (Chesterton I think) beautifully summed it up by the term "a Science of the gaps-issue".
I have no reason to think that "thought" is present or happening anywhere else.
And professionals don't seem to think so either. Why else would they put people under a brain scanner when they wish to find out why they excel at math, for example?
Professionals don't really know how thought forms or functions. Hence they are trying to figure it out. To pretend they already have to some extent is laughable.
As to your example, if we test the condition of a car on a roller, it hardly constitues proof of driving.
I never made any claims of general efficacy.
Someone extremely close to me suffers from chronic paranoid psychosis.
The only thing that helps in controlling those episodes (and ending accute ones) are anti-psychotics.
I am very sorry for you. There are few things more damaging then mental illness in those close to you. I have seen this first hand in my own near relations and in my professional aspect as a doctor.
I would suggest though that you should encourage CBT and not just place all hope in medications alone. A multimodal approach is always more effective in these cases. I have attached a systemic review which strongly supports its efficacy here.
Cognitive behaviour therapy for schizophrenia