The parable of the fig tree.

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BonoMan

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NOW LEARN A PARABLE (or a lesson) OF THE FIG TREE (of the Israeli nation). (Note, the Israeli nation had to be reborn. Without this key event being in place, no other prophecy of the latter days meant anything.) WHEN HIS BRANCH IS YET TENDER, AND PUTTETH FORTH LEAVES (the branch on the tree becomes tender after the long, cold winter. When Israel is yet tender and puts forth leaves—this indicates the spring time), YE KNOW THAT SUMMER IS NIGH. (When one would see the Israeli nation come forth, and his branches tender, and leaves coming forth, you would know summer is near or you would know that certain things are near.) SO LIKEWISE YE, WHEN YE SHALL SEE ALL THESE THINGS (the list of things that Jesus just gave in the previous verses), KNOW THAT IT IS NEAR, EVEN AT THE DOORS. (Again, we see the command to know that certain events are at the doors and are going to happen almost immediately,
http://www.parentalguide.com/Documents/Bible_Prophecy/Parable_fig_tree.htm#BIBLE%20PROPHECY

Is this true that the fig tree Jesus was referring to is israel?
 

Pericles

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I believe that you are correct - Paul is also comparing Israel in Romans with an olive tree that did not produce fruit, so branches were broken off (unbelieving jews), and new branches were grafted in (gentiles). Your insight into the passage is very accurate and very good - the time of the harvest was AT THE DOOR...
 
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I simply believe that Jesus was referring to the signs that he mentioned earlier as being the PROOF that the time is near..... As the signs unfold, the fig tree is getting tender and its leaves are coming out.. When Jesus appears in the clouds with great power and authority, the fig three is ripe...

For he says, "When you see THESE THINGS HAPPENING, you know that it is near, right at the DOOR." In this, he was not referring to a literal fig tree, but the signs that precede his coming on the clouds.
 
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duster1az

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Bonoman writes: "Is this true that the fig tree Jesus was referring to is israel?"

Some say that the budding of the fig tree refers to the reestablishment of Israel as a nation in 1948, but several things work against that interpretation.

Nowhere does (Matt. 24-25) speak of Israel's return to Palestine. In fact we don't find Israel's return anywhere in Matthew. Christ's Olivet Discourse, with its portrayal of future historical events, has moved beyond Israel's return with the Jews already in the land.

Also, in the parallel account found in (Luke 21:29) it is stated, "Behold the fig tree and all the trees.." It's not just one tree in view, but many. So it seems Christ is referring to trees in general and what they do in spring, not a particular tree that pictures Israel.

It is my belief Scripture is teaching that the fig tree depicts eleven signs that Christ reveals in (Matt. 24:4-24). When all "these things" (vs 33) begin to happen the Second Coming is near.

In Christ,
Tracey
 
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Knee V

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Matt 21:19 "And seeing a fig tree by the road, He came to it and found nothing on it but leaves, and said to it, 'Let no fruit grow on you ever again.' Immediately the fig tree withered away."

IF the fig tree represents Israel throughout scripture, then Jesus is teaching both that Israel will be restored and that it will never be restored.

Or, the fig tree in Matt 24 has nothing to do with Israel, just like the fig tree in Matt 21. As Bonoman pointed out, the parallel account in Luke makes it clear that Jesus was merely using a natural illustration to show the relationship between the signs and the event.

So, either Israel will not be restored and be restored, or the fig tree has nothing to do with Israel in Matt 24.
 
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parousia70

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An interesting side note:

Jesus Christ himself, in the parable of the fig tree, affirms that the term "near", in regards to eschatology, is to be used in it's plain sense, how it relates to the human understanding of the passage of time.

Can ony one deny that Jesus uses the term "near" in it's plain sense in this passage?

Or is Jesus saying, "when you see all these things, know that it could be 2000 years "near"?

The Thread starter seems to think Jesus means "almost immediatly" when he uses the term "near" in this passage.

Like I said, an interesting side note.
 
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duster1az

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parousia70 writes: "Can any one deny that Jesus uses the term "near" in it's plain sense in this passage?"


Why would anyone dispute the literal understanding of "near" in the passage?

Jesus does apply the fig tree to His disciples with, "even so you too" (vs 33), but that doesn't mean that they would be the ones to see all the signs come together. In fact His immediate audience didn't live to see its fulfillment; that remains for those alive during the Tribulation.

Christ identifies the generation who will experience the signs. The important clause to interpret in the verse is "this generation." The term can denote a family or clan of people descended from a common ancestor, or a generation of contemporaries born and living about the same time (Matt. 11:16; Acts 2:40), and even a period of time (Eph. 3:21; Col. 1:26). But, because Jesus speaks of Jews who see all the signs of the end times, I think it best to understand "generation" as those contemporaries living during the future Tribulation. In other words, those who see all the signs are "this generation."

If this interpretation is correct, (and I believe it to be), then a literal interpretation of "near" is not a problem. When those living during the future Tribulation see all the signs Christ reveals (Matt. 24) then His coming is "near, right at the door."

In Christ,
Tracey
 
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If Jesus meant a future generation besides His own, why didn't he say THAT generation?

When Jesus says "Even so you...", He is not linking the disciples to the fig tree. He is linking the disciples (you) to the verb "know".
"So you also, when you see all these things, know that it is near - at the doors!"
"When you see all these things" is a parenthetical statement, so you can take it out of the sentence and it still be gramatically correct: "Even so you know that it is near."
"You" goes with "know", not the fig tree. Just like in the preceding verse when He says "you know that summer is near". The part that is linked to the fig tree is "when you see all these".

When its branch has already become tender and puts forth its leaves/when you see all these things ... you know that summer is near/you know that it is near".

The passages in Hosea and Joel (at least Hosea for sure) use the fig tree (as well as the grape vine) to represent Israel. The difference there is that the context makes the direct relation. In Matt, Jesus does not make an analogy between Israel and the tree. The analogy is between "signs" and the fig tree, as well as all the trees.
 
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duster1az

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knee-v writes: "If Jesus meant a future generation besides His own, why didn't he say THAT generation?"

The short answer is the "Doctrine of Imminence."
God intends its teaching to be great incentive for godly living and aggressive ministry.

knee-v writes: "When Jesus says "Even so you...", He is not linking the disciples to the fig tree. He is linking the disciples (you) to the verb "know"."

I made no comment on the sentence structure of the passage. I did, however, state correctly that the parable of the fig tree was applied to the disciples and its application is in keeping with His imminent return.

In Christ,
Tracey










 
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Pericles

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ikester said:
joel 1.7 and hosea 9.10 speaks of the fig tree...referring to israel... the nation of israel never existed from the time of babylon captivity until may 1948....ezekiel.. chapters 36 and 37 speaks of israel's rebirth......
What is your definition of "nation" then?
 
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parousia70

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duster1az said:
knee-v writes: "If Jesus meant a future generation besides His own, why didn't he say THAT generation?"

The short answer is the "Doctrine of Imminence."
God intends its teaching to be great incentive for godly living and aggressive ministry.


So the "Short answer" is that God intended to mislead all generations prior to the "final generation" into thinking they were "this generation" so they would be scared enough to "live godly lives"?
 
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duster1az

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parousia 70 writes: "So the "Short answer" is that God intended to mislead all generations prior to the "final generation" into thinking they were "this generation" so they would be scared enough to "live godly lives"?"


Mislead???, what a strange opinion. I don't find the doctrine of imminency a misrepresentation of what is presented in the Olivet Discourse in the least.

"Therefore be on the alert, for you do not know which day your Lord is coming. But be sure of this, that if the head of the house had known at what time of the night the thief was coming, he would have been on the alert and would not have allowed his house to be broken into. For this reason you be ready too; for the Son of Man is coming at an hour when you do not think He will" (Matt. 24: 42-44).

Include (vss 45-51) and this seems to be an admonition to the generation that witnesses all the signs aluded to in (24:4-24), reminding them of Christ's impending return and Israel's judgment.

In Christ,
Tracey

 
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Hitch

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ikester said:
joel 1.7 and hosea 9.10 speaks of the fig tree...referring to israel... the nation of israel never existed from the time of babylon captivity until may 1948....ezekiel.. chapters 36 and 37 speaks of israel's rebirth......
Hmmmm odd then Pete would say YE MEN OF ISRAEL...So tell me please,, since many prophecies refer to the return from captivty,such as the one you brought up,,,where were the captives returned too?

Hitch
 
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Hitch

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The passages in Hosea and Joel (at least Hosea for sure) use the fig tree (as well as the grape vine) to represent Israel. The difference there is that the context makes the direct relation. In Matt, Jesus does not make an analogy between Israel and the tree. The analogy is between "signs" and the fig tree, as well as all the trees

That line is never discussed in DF corckles K...lol

H
 
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Knee V

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It is admonishing the generation to whom it is referring. But to what generation is it referring. You have to interpret words in anything but their normal manner to get them to refer to a generation besides His own. He was speaking to the disciples using the second person. Unless the future generation was right there with Him so He could say "you" and mean the 2,000+ years away future. Yes it was to prepare His disciples for something that could happen at anytime. But Jesus does not call it His "return". He calls it his "coming". And there is a difference. God "came" in judgement upon many nations in the OT. The same language about cosmic disturbances is also used in the OT when a nation is going to be judged. Jesus is quoting OT judgement language to describe what His disciples were to expect. And that is His judgement upon Jerusalem. He "came" in judgement upon Jerusalem and the temple in March of 67AD - Sept of 70AD (that's exactly 42 months, by the way).
 
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Linda8

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parousia70 said:
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So the "Short answer" is that God intended to mislead all generations prior to the "final generation" into thinking they were "this generation" so they would be scared enough to "live godly lives"?
Why should a Christian decide to live A GODLY LIFE only when that Christian

is told that he/she is part of the final generation??

Thou shalt not ask for a sign....
 
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