Revelation-14 . The 144,000 are jews who have jesus fathers name written in their foreheads . To understand this better, search : PHYLACTERY or TEFILLIN . Could this be a reversal of the mark of the beast ? Seek and you shall find .
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The Mark! Allegiance to the Imperial Cult
- Thread starter GW
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How can the mark of the beast be spritual when it is required to buy and sell?
In the OT, wasn't there a "mark" provided to believers so their first born wouldn't be killed. (can't remember the verse.....lambs blood on the door or house...something like that??)
In the OT, wasn't there a "mark" provided to believers so their first born wouldn't be killed. (can't remember the verse.....lambs blood on the door or house...something like that??)
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GW is correct:
" A Hebrew spelling of Nero Caesar's name was Nrwn Qsr n, e,r, o, n; q, s, r. It has been documented by archaeological finds that a first century Hebrew spelling of Nero's name provides us with precisely the value of 666. Is it not remarkable that this most relevant emperor has a name that fits precisely the required sum? Is this sheer historical accident? But there is more.
Second, the textual variant. If you consult a Bible with marginal references you may notice something of interest regarding Revelation 13:18. Your reference may say something to the effect: "Some manuscripts read 616." The fact is that the number 666 in some ancient manuscripts of Scripture is actually changed to 616. But why? Was it changed accidentally, or on purpose?
The difference surely is no accident of sight made by an early copiest. The numbers 666 and 616 are not even similar in appearance in the original Greek--whether spelled out in words or written out as numerals. As textual scholars agree, it must be intentional.
A strong and most reasonable case may be made for the following probability. John, a Jew, used a Hebrew spelling of Nero's name in order to arrive at the figure 666. But when Revelation began circulating among those less acquainted with Hebrew, a well-meaning copiest who knew the meaning of 666 might have intended to make its deciphering easier by altering it to 616. It surely is no mere coincidence that 616 is the numerical value of "Nero Caesar," when spelled in Hebrew by transliterating it from its more widely familiar Latin spelling."
" A Hebrew spelling of Nero Caesar's name was Nrwn Qsr n, e,r, o, n; q, s, r. It has been documented by archaeological finds that a first century Hebrew spelling of Nero's name provides us with precisely the value of 666. Is it not remarkable that this most relevant emperor has a name that fits precisely the required sum? Is this sheer historical accident? But there is more.
Second, the textual variant. If you consult a Bible with marginal references you may notice something of interest regarding Revelation 13:18. Your reference may say something to the effect: "Some manuscripts read 616." The fact is that the number 666 in some ancient manuscripts of Scripture is actually changed to 616. But why? Was it changed accidentally, or on purpose?
The difference surely is no accident of sight made by an early copiest. The numbers 666 and 616 are not even similar in appearance in the original Greek--whether spelled out in words or written out as numerals. As textual scholars agree, it must be intentional.
A strong and most reasonable case may be made for the following probability. John, a Jew, used a Hebrew spelling of Nero's name in order to arrive at the figure 666. But when Revelation began circulating among those less acquainted with Hebrew, a well-meaning copiest who knew the meaning of 666 might have intended to make its deciphering easier by altering it to 616. It surely is no mere coincidence that 616 is the numerical value of "Nero Caesar," when spelled in Hebrew by transliterating it from its more widely familiar Latin spelling."
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The mark of the beast everyone agrees will be required to buy and sell. Therefore it must be visable to all.
If you want a good idea as to how the mark of the lamb could be read the "Left Behind" series of books. I know it is just fiction but the way the marks work is pretty much exactly how I always thought it would be. The mark of the lamb is a cross on the forehead ONLY visable to other beleivers. Non-beleivers cannot see this mark.
So while it is indeed a physical mark, it came to be by the hand of God and not a man-made device.
Scott P
If you want a good idea as to how the mark of the lamb could be read the "Left Behind" series of books. I know it is just fiction but the way the marks work is pretty much exactly how I always thought it would be. The mark of the lamb is a cross on the forehead ONLY visable to other beleivers. Non-beleivers cannot see this mark.
So while it is indeed a physical mark, it came to be by the hand of God and not a man-made device.
Scott P
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Like I said "I know it is just FICTION". I just happen to see it as a possible explaination of how it COULD happen. This would explain both marks.
Scott P
Scott P
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TheBear
NON-WOKED
This is a general heads-up, for preterists who continue posting in the Eschatology forum. Erwin has made it clear in this thread, that preterist views shall not be posted in the Eschatology forum.
If any preterists have any questions, please contact Erwin, Josephus or any of the staff.
Thank you,
John
If any preterists have any questions, please contact Erwin, Josephus or any of the staff.
Thank you,
John
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