I'm not going to argue anything, as you said- he taught them "true" interpretation. But, that is all it is, his interpretation. They had at least three others. Therefore to state that they were stymied is unlikely, if you ever discussed the scripture with Israelites. It's not the content that makes this conversation a work of fiction, it's the conversation itself.If you are going to bring into question the validity of the Greek copies, then you should do the same for the Hebrew copies. We do not have David's original text of Psalm 110. We just trust it was copied faithfully.
The issue, based on the Greek text, is not whether or not the Jews understood the difference between Adonai and adoni. I am sure Yeshua used "adoni" when he spoke to the Jews in Matthew 22:41-46. The Greek copies use κυρίῳ μου which is exactly as it appears in the Septuagint. What matters is how the Hebrew renders Psalm 110:1. It is not doubt "adoni" meaning "my lord."
Yeshua knew the Jews believed Messiah was the son of David and they admitted as much.
Yeshua also knew they did not know how Messiah was David's son and David's lord which is why he asked the question in verse 45. He seized the opportunity to teach them the true interpretation of Psalm 110:1 as referring to Messiah, not David or anyone else. The modern Jewish interpretation that "my lord" refers to David is false. If you are going to argue Matthew 22:41-46 is based on speculation because we can't trust the Greek copies, then we can't trust the Hebrew copies either. We might as well throw out the entire Bible since it is all based on copies.
Do not let the false Christian and Jewish interpretations sway you from understanding the truth of Psalm 110:1. Accept that Yeshua's words were handed down correctly and that "my lord" refers to David's lord, Messiah.
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