S.O.J.I.A.
Dynamic UNO
- Nov 6, 2016
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I think the scriptures are clear enough that God desires to save everyone
stop right here!
are you a universalist?
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I think the scriptures are clear enough that God desires to save everyone
How is it possible that an omniscient, omnipotent God who is in the eternal realm, outside of time, who sees eternity past, and forward would not know what His creatures are going to do just because He may choose to allow them free will? Or make Him powerless to deal with their choices???
No one is forced to accept Jesus; some people chose to follow him, then deserted him when his teaching was too hard, John 6:66. We are not told that he chased after them to drag them back; he let them go. Similarly with the rich young ruler - no one forced him to walk away.
And no one forced Adam to disobey the command he had heard from God and eat the fruit.
let me ask you. did God put out the same amount of effort to save Hitler as he did to save Paul?
i'm not aware of any 'calvinist' who would make this claim
so i'm not sure why this straw man argument is consistently put forth by opponents of the doctrine.
james 1:13-15 refutes it head on.
Wow, really? Can't see what was made obvious?? No one provided options to God. Is it getting through yet?you didn't.
the question you answered, which I never asked, was "who made the choice of which world to create from the option provided?"
the question I asked, which you have yet to answer, is "who provided the options of worlds to create for God to choose from?".
I await your answer.
Because God allows free will. God wants people to love Him. If we have no free will, then any love or devotion or loyalty or obedience we show is completely meaningless. It only means something if we choose it. That choice only exists if there is another option - the choice to not love, the choice to not be devoted, the choice to be disloyal, the choice to disobey.if you believe God loves all people, why would he allow suffering and why is there a hell?
Because there needed to be free will.if you believe God did not want those people to suffer, why did he create a world(not out of necessity, but purely out of prerogative) where it would happen?
Once again (seriously, how many times to I have to say it??), WRONG. *YOU* are contradicting *YOURSELF*. I never claimed your interpretations are 100% accurate. YOU are claiming that. That means it is YOUR INTERPRETATIONS, not me, that makes Scripture contradict itself.so then your position is that Scripture, God's Word, contradicts itself? if these interpretations are 100% accurate summaries of what God has proclaimed then that would be the only logical conclusion.
YOU are the one who said man making free will choices makes Him subordinate to man. Post #127. And again in post #202 you said:it still remains that there's nothing contradictory about God preordaining all actions and events in time and man making decisions based on his own will and desires. you've made the claim that it is. you're welcomed to prove it.
Once again, you seem to be flip-flopping & contradicting yourself over whether or not man has free will or not.the path of man has always been set(by God and not by chance)
Wow, really? Can't see what was made obvious?? No one provided options to God. Is it getting through yet?
you do realize you just confirmed the statement I made in my initial post in this thread.Because God allows free will.
Because there needed to be free will.
Once again (seriously, how many times to I have to say it??), WRONG. *YOU* are contradicting *YOURSELF*. I never claimed your interpretations are 100% accurate. YOU are claiming that. That means it is YOUR INTERPRETATIONS, not me, that makes Scripture contradict itself.
YOU are the one who said man making free will choices makes Him subordinate to man.
Once again, you seem to be flip-flopping & contradicting yourself over whether or not man has free will or not.
then why the statements about someone being "forced" to do something since both of us agree no one has ever made that claim?I never said they would.
you just admitted no one made this argument yet you have posited it as the position of those who would hold to Calvinist doctrine that God would save those who would be drawn by the Father to the Son to be raised up.It's not a straw man argument.
The issue is, does God choose to save, and have mercy, on only some people? My position is that salvation is for everyone - since ALL have sinned and Jesus died for sinners. Not everyone will be saved - that was in answer to the question, "are you a universalist?" - but the provision is there.
James 1:13-15 doesn't have anything to do with the issue of God deciding to have mercy on only a few of those he created; as far as I can see.
How can the answer be "yes" when you didn't ask a yes/no question? You asked a "who" question.so is the answer yes to my actual question?
No I didn't, because you seem to claim man having free will makes God subordinate to man. I have never "confirmed" that idea in the slightest.you do realize you just confirmed the statement I made in my initial post in this thread.
No, you are twisting what I said. God CHOSE to allow free will. Free will is a necessary result of God's CHOICE.again, "needed" to be free will? this is another example of where God's ability to create is made subject to man's autonomous free will, despite the fact that he had no desire to see man suffer.
No.do you believe Ezekiel 11:19-20 is a violation of man's autonomous free will?
I already did by pointing out that you seem to contradict yourself. If your interpretations were correct, you wouldn't seem to contradict yourself.ok, then prove these interpretations are inaccurate.
Ok. So?in a synergist soteriological system it does, in a monergist system it does not.
No, they aren't logical conclusions.it was you who said God knew all events from eternity past without learning what these events would be at any time in that eternity. what you quoted from me here is the logical conclusion of that position.
You're confusing what man thinks is happening with what is actually happening. If man has no free will, then him *thinking* he has free will doesn't change that fact.again, james 1:13-15 shows that man makes the decision to commit sin based on his own will and desires and not on a eternal decree he has no knowledge of.
man does not say in his head "well, God decreed that I would rob this bank so I better do it". instead he says "I've been planning this bank robbery for months and I'm gonna be rich! let's do this!".
No I didn't, because you seem to claim man having free will makes God subordinate to man. I have never "confirmed" that idea in the slightest.
No, you are twisting what I said. God CHOSE to allow free will. Free will is a necessary result of God's CHOICE.
I already did by pointing out that you seem to contradict yourself. If your interpretations were correct, you wouldn't seem to contradict yourself.
Ok. So?
No, they aren't logical conclusions.
You're confusing what man thinks is happening with what is actually happening. If man has no free will, then him *thinking* he has free will doesn't change that fact.
It doesn't seem like you've understood a single thing I've said. I'm not going to just keep going back & forth like this.I didn't say you conceded the point, you just confirmed it.
choice to do what?
could God have made a world with no suffering and still have autonomous free will creatures? if yes, why didn't he(remember, God does not desire there to be suffering)?
you're dodging,
you can't prove the renderings to be inaccurate. if you can't prove their inaccuracy than your claim of contradiction is invalid since God's Word does not contradict itself.
not my job to work through the problems of someone else's soteriological system. i'm a monergist.
ok, so you claim that God had all knowledge and never learned anything at any point in eternity but the path of man has not always been set?
rather, i'm pointing out that man is making his decision based on what he desires to do in his heart and not on factors he doesn't know exists. god's decretive will was not in this man's consideration when he decided to knock off a bank. that's what james 1:13-15 says.
what is your definition of "free will"?
I believe God did put out as much effort to save Hitler as Paul by going to the cross for the sins of each of them. I think a more appropriate question may be "Why was Paul saved and not Hitler?"simple,
if God always knew what His creatures would do, and at no time learned this information, the path of man has always been set(by God and not by chance) and cannot be altered. you can't 'declare the end from the beginning' if there are an infinite number of variables.
this means many people are suffering and will spend eternity in hell because of a God who supposedly loves everyone and who wants everyone to be saved(according to you anyway).
let me ask you. did God put out the same amount of effort to save Hitler as he did to save Paul?
I am not a universalist. The Bible is clear that though Christ paid for the sins of everyone salvation and eternal life is conditional upon trusting Jesus and a gift which must be received.stop right here!
are you a universalist?
then why the statements about someone being "forced" to do something since both of us agree no one has ever made that claim?
you just admitted no one made this argument yet you have posited it as the position of those who would hold to Calvinist doctrine that God would save those who would be drawn by the Father to the Son to be raised up.
the problem with this position is that the angel announced that God WILL save his people from their sins. it does not say he will make us an offer...that we can(and will) easily refuse, but that He will absolutely accomplish salvation for his people.
what you're proposing here is that he just threw us a life line and we might or might not take it.
it required an act of God on our heart and mind to even choose to take this offer(Ezekiel 11:19-20).
No - which is why I wrote, "that is not to say that everyone will accept that salvation".
God has provided a Saviour and the means of salvation - Jesus.
Jesus said that no one comes to the Father except through him, John 14:6, and that whoever receives him will have eternal life, John 6:40. Also John 3:16, John 3:36, John 6:60.
No one is forced to accept Jesus; some people chose to follow him, then deserted him when his teaching was too hard, John 6:66. We are not told that he chased after them to drag them back; he let them go. Similarly with the rich young ruler - no one forced him to walk away.
And no one forced Adam to disobey the command he had heard from God and eat the fruit.
Yes, possibly - in response to others' prayers.
The teaching of the NT is "seek the Lord while he may be found; while you are able and before it is too late."
Those are obviously true, so was there some other point of controversy you wished to bring up?
But Adam had free will. God never forced anyone to sin. The natural man enjoys his sins. God never forced anyone to be a Christian. The spiritual man who has been quickened is no longer dead. He loves Christ and loves following Christ. Being quickened doesn't cause a person to kick and scream.
No points of controversy to bring up, jimmyjimmy.
I am just wondering exactly how to talk to the lost, rather than argue A against C, but that is another thread
Peace
a discussion regarding how a man gets saved is not the same thing as a proclamation of the gospel. We preach the gospel promiscuously