I have read Josephus' account once, long time ago, but reading Josephus does not help. If one studies the Bible instead of Josephus, then the fact comes to light that two Greek words are used for God's temple in the Greek:
1. hieron, which is always referring to the outer court and buildings of the temple, or the temple precincts.
2. naos, which always only refers to the holy court and the most holy place, and once, to the body of Christ when He referred to His body as the temple of God.
The word naos is used in reference to the holy place in Luke 1:9, 21-22 (Zacharias the priest, father of John the Baptist, goes into the holy place to burn incense).
It’s also found in Matthew 23:16-17, 21 and 35 (Jesus speaking about swearing by the naos; and Jesus speaking about when Zacharias son of Barachias was slain by the Jews, who Jesus said was slain between the naos and the altar).
The word naos is also used wherever we read that Jesus referred to His body as the temple of God (Matthew 26:61; 27:40; Mark 14:58; Mark 15:29; John 2:19-21).
Matthew 27:5 tells us that Judas Iscariot threw the silver into the naos.
Matthew 27:51, Mark 15:38 and Luke 23:45 tell us about the veil in the naos (separating the holy place and most holy place) being torn when Jesus died on the cross.
The word naos is never used again in reference to the temple in Jerusalem, or any part of it, after the verses talking about the tearing of the veil in the temple. – instead, it’s used for the bodies of individual Christians (when referring to our bodies as the temple of God), and when referring to the congregation of believers as the temple, and in reference to the heavenly temple (in the Revelation)
– but the Greek word hieron is never used in reference either to the holy place of the Old Testament temple, or to the above.
View attachment 280889
The word naos is also used in Revelation 11:1 where John is told to measure the temple, and in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 in reference to the temple the man of sin will seat himself up in so IF (note: IF) those two verses are exceptions, then they are the only two exceptions to the rule.
There are two parts of Matthew 24 which do not sufficiently place the Great Tribulation in AD66-70 ONLY - the fact that Jesus stated His appearing in the clouds to gather His elect will immediately follow the tribulation that He had been speaking about, and verse 9, where after speaking of the birth-pains of His coming, He tells His disciples that they will become hated of ALL nations for His name sake, and killed. It is in THIS context that Jesus speaks about the Great Tribulation,
and the whole passage is joined together into one long sentence by the words "and", therefore", "but" and "for", leaving no room to divide the (time of) Great Tribulation from the appearance of Jesus in the clouds immediately after the Great tribulation.
So.. my questions will never be answered by Josephus' account of the terrible tribulation suffered by the Jews when Jerusalem was besieged and then the temple besieged and finally destroyed by fire .. I'd rather ask Christians.