The Gospel of Mark Belongs To Peter

timtams

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So the problem there is the Synaxis doesn’t contradict the OCA Hagiography’s assertion that John Mark is St. Mark of Alexandria.

Many saints are commemorated on multiple days. For example, the Feast of St. Basil is January 1st (also the Feast of the Circumcision of Our Lord), but St. Basil is also commemorated with St. John Chrysostom and St. Gregory of Nazianzus on the Feast of the Three Holy Hierarchs in late January. And St. Paul is commemorated on the feast of his conversion, and on the solemnity of his beheading, and on the upcoming Feast of the Holy Apostles at the end of the impending Apostle’s Fast. And I don’t even have enough time to enumerate the feasts and fast days of St. Mary or our Lord, which are numerous and extremely numerous respectively (Advent is six weeks in the Byzantine Rite, indeed in most rites, even in some Western rites like the beautiful Ambrosian Rite used in Milan and the surrounding countryside, so that’s twelve weeks of fasting for our Lord before a major feast in his honor, and then there is a roughly two week Apostles Fast ending in the Feast of the Apostles (namely Peter and Paul) and another two week fast, the Dormition Fast, in honor of Our Lady the Theotokos and Ever Virgin Mary, who I regard a devotion to as a key step in developing theological health, which concludes with the Feast of the Dormition, which corresponds to the Western Rite Feast of the Assumption.

So, having a feast for Mark the Apostle, also called John, does not meet the criteria I set out, because it is not contradictory to the OCA Hagiography, which states that St. Mark the Evangelist was also called John Mark.

Now, lest I be accused of raising the goalposts, I never said “find me an official hagiography that refers to John Mark on the 27th, but instead, I was very specific, when I said I would backtrack as follows.

“I have told you what will make me concede or backtrack: find me a hagiography or pair of hagiographies on the website of one of Eastern Orthodox Churches in North America, that establish John Mark as someone else.”

- Presbyter Eugenios, Teaching Elder in the Congregational Church, 21st June 2021

John Mark has not been established by these hagiographies as someone else. Indeed, even the Greek Orthodox hagiography fails to meet the bill, because St. Mark having been an idolater and a nephew of Barnabas are not incompatible positions. Indeed, it does not even refute the Syriac Orthodox tradition that St. Mark owned the house in which the Cenacle was located, since St. Peter could have introduced him to our Lord, and thus he would have been among the seventy on their dominical mission, and on the periphery of our Lord, and St. Peter introducing people to our Lord before His Holy Ascension is by no means inconceivable, for indeed St. Andrew the First Called introduced Simon who is called Peter to our Lord, according to the Gospel of John.
I said you would just try to reconcile them. One says he was an idolater, converted by the Peter, another that he was a Jew (cousin of Barnabas), one of the Seventy disciples. If you don't see a contradiction or problem, then I certainly don't see much point trying to demonstrate it.

The reason why the Synaxis is evidence for separate persons is because it lists exactly 70 disciples, three of whom are called Mark (Mark the Evangelist, bishop of Alexandria; John Mark bishop of Byblos; and Mark the cousin of Barnabas, bishop of Apollonia).
 
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timtams

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We teach that John Mark and Mark are the same individual. The Greek Synaxarion for April 25 reads:

Mark was an idolater from Cyrene of Pentapolis, which is near Libya. Having come to the Faith of Christ through the Apostle Peter, he followed him to Rome. While there, at the prompting of Peter himself and at the request of the Christians living there, he wrote his Gospel in Greek, and it is second in order after Matthew's. Afterwards, traveling to Egypt, he preached the Gospel there and was the first to establish the Church in Alexandria. The idolaters, unable to bear his preaching, seized him, bound him with ropes, and dragged him through the streets until he, cut to pieces on rocks, gave up his soul. It is said that he completed his life in martyrdom about the year 68. He is depicted in holy icons with a lion next to him, one of the living creatures mentioned by Ezekiel (1:10), and a symbol of Christ's royal office, as Saint Irenaeus of Lyons writes.

So what of the tradition that John Mark was a Jew, the cousin of Barnabas, one of the seventy disciples of Christ, and host of the Last Supper?
 
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It's better to study first and speak second.



Alban Butler, Lives of the Saints

The saints commemorated on Sept 27 include Mark, Aristarchos and Zenon, apostles of the Seventy.
So what of the tradition that John Mark was a Jew, the cousin of Barnabas, one of the seventy disciples of Christ, and host of the Last Supper?

Sorry as Im catching up and getting confuzzed! I'd have to dig through some online stuff which is what others would also have access to. From what I can tell there are two John Marks. The evangelist and a second the cousin of Barnabas.
 
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timtams

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I have the Prologue of Ohrid, and it does not contain the words “John Mark.”
You're mistaken:

Mark, Aristarchus and Zenas were apostles of the Seventy. St. Mark was also known as John. The holy apostles gathered for prayer at the house of his mother Mary in Jerusalem (Acts 12:12). He preached the Gospel with the Apostles Paul and Barnabas (Acts 12:25). After that, Mark was bishop in the town of Byblos.
https://web.archive.org/web/20170502211521/http://westserbdio.org/en/prologue/645-september-27

And even if it did, it doesn’t matter, because it is not an official Church document, whereas the official Hagiography of the Orthodox Church in America says Mark the Evangelist was also called John Mark. This overrides all unofficial references.
How is it not an official church document? Isn't it an official church document of the Serbian Church? And is it not found on the official website of the Australian and NZ Diocese of the Russian Orthodox Church Outside of Russia?

Bishops of the Australian and New Zealand Diocese | Australian and New Zealand Diocese (ROCOR)

And did they not link this from the website of the Serbian Orthodox Church Diocese of Western America? The Prologue from Ochrid | Australian and New Zealand Diocese (ROCOR)
 
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So according to Hippolytus (and wikipedia...)

However, Hippolytus of Rome in On the Seventy Apostles distinguishes Mark the Evangelist (2 Tim 4:11), John Mark (Acts 12:12, 25; 13:5, 13; 15:37), and Mark the cousin of Barnabas (Col 4:10; Phlm 1:24).[6] According to Hippolytus, they all belonged to the "Seventy Disciples" who were sent out by Jesus to disseminate the gospel (Luke 10:1ff.) in Judea.

14. Mark the evangelist, bishop of Alexandria.
15. Luke the evangelist.
These two belonged to the seventy disciples who were scattered2030by the offense of the word which Christ spoke, “Except a man eat my flesh, and drink my blood, he is not worthy of me.”2031But the one being induced to return to the Lord by Peter’s instrumentality, and the other by Paul’s, they were honored to preach that Gospel2032on account of which they also suffered martyrdom, the one being burned, and the other being crucified on an olive tree.
56. Mark, cousin to Barnabas, bishop of Apollonia.
65. Mark, who is also John, bishop of Bibloupolis.

So it appears that there is confusion as to the who is listing the various Marks.
 
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The Liturgist

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I said you would just try to reconcile them. One says he was an idolater, converted by the Peter, another that he was a Jew (cousin of Barnabas), one of the Seventy disciples. If you don't see a contradiction or problem, then I certainly don't see much point trying to demonstrate it.

The reason why the Synaxis is evidence for separate persons is because it lists exactly 70 disciples, three of whom are called Mark (Mark the Evangelist, bishop of Alexandria; John Mark bishop of Byblos; and Mark the cousin of Barnabas, bishop of Apollonia).

While it is true that I did indeed reconcile the accounts, I posted my reply before I was finished with it, and if you would read the addition, you will notice that based on your scholarship, I was moved to reassess the relevant portions of the Prologue of Ohrid and linked them to an Oriental Orthodox liturgical anomaly which changed my mind, and I now am strongly inclined towards your position, as it solves a mystery that has perplexed me for years.
 
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@timtams - I eradicated the incomplete post, in which I learned to use a text editor like vim or emacs on Linux, cream on Windows, or Notes on Apple devices, rather than posting an incomplete post and hoping to finish it before anyone notices. And I nearly deleted the whole works anyway, so yeah, if anyone reading this is a ChristianForums n00b like me, don’t do that.

So here is the complete post, starting with @timtams reply:


Synaxis of the 70 from the Serbian Orthodox Church.

There are two separate biographies below the list:


II. Saint Mark the Evangelist (April 25)

Mark wrote his Gospel under the direction of Saint Peter and is mentioned by that Apostle in his First General Epistle. Peter writes, The church that is at Babylon saluteth you; and so doth Mark my son. Peter ordained Mark Bishop of Alexandria. The idolaters of that city bound him, dragged him over jagged rocks, and beat him; whereupon, the Lord appeared, summoned him to heavenly glory, and received his spirit.



LXI. Saint Mark, or John (September 27)

Saint Mark, the companion of Barnabas and Saul, appears frequently in the Acts of the Apostles, for example, in this passage: Barnabas and Saul returned from Jerusalem, when they had fulfilled their ministry, and took with them John, whose surname was Mark. This Apostle, whose shadow healed the sick, was Bishop of Byblus in Phoenicia.



Synaxis of the Seventy Apostles | Serbian Orthodox Church [Official web site]
Click to expand...

So the problem there is the Synaxis doesn’t contradict the OCA Hagiography’s assertion that John Mark is St. Mark of Alexandria. But this is kind of obvious; you knew I was going there, and it doesn’t matter in the end because you convinced me in a different way, by prompting me to reread the Prologue of Ohrid, reminding me of an Oriental Orthodox liturgical anomaly which seems easiest to solve if John Mark is someone else.

Many saints are commemorated on multiple days. For example, the Feast of St. Basil is January 1st (also the Feast of the Circumcision of Our Lord), but St. Basil is also commemorated with St. John Chrysostom and St. Gregory of Nazianzus on the Feast of the Three Holy Hierarchs in late January. And St. Paul is commemorated on the feast of his conversion, and on the solemnity of his beheading, and on the upcoming Feast of the Holy Apostles at the end of the impending Apostle’s Fast. And I don’t even have enough time to enumerate the feasts and fast days of St. Mary or our Lord, which are numerous and extremely numerous respectively (Advent is six weeks in the Byzantine Rite, indeed in most rites, even in some Western rites like the beautiful Ambrosian Rite used in Milan and the surrounding countryside, so that’s twelve weeks of fasting for our Lord before a major feast in his honor, and then there is a roughly two week Apostles Fast ending in the Feast of the Apostles (namely Peter and Paul) and another two week fast, the Dormition Fast, in honor of Our Lady the Theotokos and Ever Virgin Mary, who I regard a devotion to as a key step in developing theological health, which concludes with the Feast of the Dormition, which corresponds to the Western Rite Feast of the Assumption.

So, having a feast for Mark the Apostle, also called John, does not meet the criteria I set out, because it is not contradictory to the OCA Hagiography, which states that St. Mark the Evangelist was also called John Mark.

Now, lest I be accused of raising the goalposts, I never said “find me an official hagiography that refers to John Mark on the 27th, but instead, I was very specific, when I said I would backtrack as follows.

“I have told you what will make me concede or backtrack: find me a hagiography or pair of hagiographies on the website of one of Eastern Orthodox Churches in North America, that establish John Mark as someone else.”

- Presbyter Eugenios, Teaching Elder in the Congregational Church, 21st June 2021

John Mark has not been established by these hagiographies as someone else. Indeed, even the Greek Orthodox hagiography fails to meet the bill, because St. Mark having been an idolater and a nephew of Barnabas are not incompatible positions. Indeed, it does not even refute the Syriac Orthodox tradition that St. Mark owned the house in which the Cenacle was located, since St. Peter could have introduced him to our Lord, and thus he would have been among the seventy on their dominical mission, and on the periphery of our Lord, and St. Peter introducing people to our Lord before His Holy Ascension is by no means inconceivable, for indeed St. Andrew the First Called introduced Simon who is called Peter to our Lord, according to the Gospel of John.

However, your admirable scholarship and work ethic prompted me to reread the relevant sections of the Prologue of Ohrid, and it attributes the house in which the Syriac Orthodox believe the Cenacle existed, to John Mark, or rather his mother (Acts 12:6-17).

This takes us to a major liturgical curiosity in the Oriental Orthodox Churches, which I think could be the key to validating your position, namely, the oldest attested liturgy in continuous use is the Divine Liturgy of St. Mark, an ancient variant of which is sometimes called the Divine Liturgy of St. Serapion, because it is found in the oldest intact liturgical service book, the one used by St. Serapion of Thmuis (a fourth century Christian bishop who was an ally of St. Athanasius against the Arian cult), and which is also known as the Divine Liturgy of St. Cyril of Alexandria, because the great champion against Nestorius also ordered the translation of the liturgy into Coptic, an act greatly appreciated by the ethnic Egyptian majority outside of Alexandria and the more Hellenized parts of the Nile Delta.

Now, the Miaphysite Church of Antioch, which became the Syriac Orthodox Church of Antioch in the Chalcedonian Schism, which for several centuries had a Greek speaking contingent that like that of the Coptic Church, switched to speaking Arabic over time after the Caliphate conquered the lands in which the two churches exist, took with it the both tje Hellenic and Syriac liturgical talents that characterized that city (at least the majority which had not left with Nestorius), with the likes of Saints Ignatius the Martyr, who introduced antiphonal singing while Bishop of Antioch after a vision of two choirs of Angels, Saint Chrysostom and Saint Severus* among the Hellenic liturgical prodigies, and Saints Ephrem, Jacob of Sarugh** and Mar Dionysius bar Salibi*** among their Syriac Aramaic speaking counterparts.

Thus it should come as no surprise that this church, which before the schism had implemented the Ethiopian Orthodox Liturgy, contributed two liturgies to the Coptic church, refined its oldest liturgy, the exquisite Divine Liturgy of the Twelve Apostles, into what became the primary liturgy of the Eastern Orthodox Church and an important Anaphora (Eucharistic Prayer) in the Syriac Orthodox Church, after the schism developed more of the Armenian liturgy, produced much marerial used in the Byzantine and other Chalcedonian liturgies, and contributed greatly to the Coptic liturgy, and the Copts in turn made sure the Syriac Orthodox developed an Antiochian adaptation of what was at the time their most important liturgy, that of St. Cyril, known to the Greeks as St. Mark. After all, the most popular fraction prayer in the Coptic Church came from the Syriac Orthodox liturgy (and I believe Antioch also inspired the vestments of all churches, because if one looks at any Eastern presbyter’s vestment or even a traditional Roman Rite presbyter’s vestment, everything one will find in any of them a counterpart in the Syriac Orthodox vestments, which no other liturgy can boast; the same is true for the stoles of deacons, and the vestments of the Coptic Orthodox Church were restored to their former pre-Islamic glory by using Coptic designs adapted by the Syriac Orthodox Church, such as the Helmet of St. Anthony, in recent decades, under Pope Shenouda (memory eternal).

But, given that the Syriac Orthodox liturgy has the Anaphora of St. Cyril (St. Mark the Evangelist), why is another one of their most popular anaphoras also dedicated to St. Mark? This Anaphora of St. Mark is completely unrelated to the Divine Liturgy of St. Cyril/St. Mark, and indeed is similar only to other Syriac Orthodox anaphorae. I have always assumed it relates to the monastery in Jerusalem, and the Prologue of Ochrid, in suggesting that the Cenacle was associated with John Mark, combined with the fact that there are effectively two anaphoras of St. Mark, inclines me to suspect you are in fact correct and John Mark could indeed be a different person.

And even if this extremely circumstantial evidence does not pan out (which will depend on what information I can glean from my Syriac Orthodox and Syriac speaking friends about the history of the monastery and why there exists an apparently superfluous Anaphora of St. Mark in addition to that taken from the Divine Liturgy of St. Cyril (St. Mark)****

So, @timtams , you did a splendid job, and have convinced me to lean towards your opinion based on the excellence of your scholarly dilligence interfacing with my pre-existent knowledge of the otherwise extremely obscure field of Syriac Orthodox liturgics.


*Saint Severus of Antioch was Hellenophone member of the Miaphysite church who wrote the hymn Ho Monogenes, which is in my opinion one of the two best creedal hymns ever written, the other being Te Deum Laudamus composed by Saints Ambrose and Augustine on the occasion of the latter’s baptism by the former, which Emperor Justinian mandated be included in the Eastern Orthodox liturgy, and it remains there, and in the Armenian and Coptic liturgies, and is the opening hymn in the Syriac Orthodox liturgy, and I believe the Maronites and Ethiopians also use it, among others.

** While Saint Ephrem the Syrian is universally venerated as the Harp of the Spirit, the Syriac Orthodox venerate Saint Jacob of Sarugh as the Flute of the Spirit, which is apt, because the two wrote some of the most beautiful hymns in existence, which to this day resonate through the Syriac Orthodox Church and the Indian Orthodox Church in traditional melodies, preserved through the centuries in two styles, those of Damascus and Tikrit, and in eight modes, like Byzantine, Gregorian, Ambrosian, Mozarabic and Armenian chant.

*** Mar Dionysius was nor only among the greatest liturgists who ever lived, his Anaphora being the most popular of the 86 in the English speaking world, and dominating the Western US Diocese, but also one of the first great liturgiologists, whose commentary on the Syriac Orthodox Liturgy is pioneering in many respects.

**** The Anaphora of St. Cyril was probably translated from the Greek version named for St. Mark and later translated into Syriac, although the church did have plenty of scholars who could read and write Coptic, Arabic, Latin, Armenian, Ge’ez and other languages relevant at the time, such as that spoken in Caucasian Albania, a Christian country conquered by Muslims and now called Azerbaijan, and Numidian, for what is now the Sudan was also a Christian land with its own Oriental Orthodox church, and indeed, speaking of Coptic translation, the Syriac Orthodox had a monastery in Egypt at the invitation of the Coptic Church, the fabled Syrian Monastery, which together with the Monastery of St. Matthew in Iraq, 20 miles from territory recently occupied by ISIL, both miraculous survivors, which were responsible both directly responsible for igniting the Renaissance by translating Aristotle, Galen, the treatises on the mathematics of Pythagoras and Archimedes, and other important Greek scholars, into Arabic, facilitating the rise of philosophers, physicians and mathematicians like Averroes, Avicenna, and Al-Kwarizmi, and also the great Jewish philosopher Maimonides, and when the writings of the “Golden Age of Islam” in which it was still barbaric but at least there was a flourishing intellectual scene that did cutting edge work. reached Europe, and were translated into Latin along with Aristotle, et cetera, this set off the Renaissance, starting with the Scholastics in the Roman Catholic Church like Thomas Aquinas and spreading out into art, architecture, and music, one Italian city at a time, and I would argue that Renaissance Humanism of the sort associated with Erasmus did help facilitate the success of the Reformation of Luther, Calvin and Cranmer (whereas the two older Protestant churches, the Waldensians and the crypto-Orthodox Moravians whose founders are venerated in Eastern Orthodoxy, barely survived, and the Lollards and followers or Wycliffe in England were wiped out and likened by the corrupt Avignon Papacy and the Borgias to the dreadful Gnostic heretics, the Albigensians, Cathars, Bogomils and Paulicians, who were not even Christian; the ultimate insult to a Christian is to deny the Christianity of his denomination.
 
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The Liturgist

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Indeed I was - that was a misread which I noted on my second reading, which led to my conversion to your POV.

How is it not an official church document? Isn't it an official church document of the Serbian Church? And is it not found on the official website of the Australian and NZ Diocese of the Russian Orthodox Church Outside of Russia?

I am behind the 8 ball, and owe you another Mea Culpa, because the edition I have it turns out was published by the regional Serbian diocese, and does in fact have an imprimatur:

650C8BCF-035F-4CB2-960E-F9BBAA93BD06.jpeg


One thing to remember however is that the Imprimatur, and diocesan website content, is official at a diocesan level. Sometimes dioceses publish things they shouldn’t and the Holy Synod, or more likely the Archbishop or Metropolitan, will tell the bishop about the problem ans it is fixed. This happens also quite often with parish churches; the lower down the hierarchy, or ironically, the higher up you go, tje more likely you’ll be forced to fix something. Patriarch Ignatius Aphrem II Karim nearly avoided a schism when 6 of his archbishops, representing some of the largest archdioceses in the Syriac Orthodox Church was coerced by some Muslims into kissing a Quran on live television, which was not a good look for him.

As a rule, the most official documents of an Orthodox church next to the proceedings of an ecumenical council or pan-Orthodox council, are those with imprimaturs from the Holy Synod or presiding bishop of an autocephalous (entirely self governing, led by, depending on size, a Patriarch, a Catholicos, or a Metropolitan or Archbishop). Autonomous churches like the Church of Finland, the Church of Japan, the Belarussian Orthodox Church, the Moldovan Orthodox Church, or the Church of Sinai (the smallest but from the perspective of archaeology, iconography, ecclesiastical history and anthropology, the most important) are next in the pecking order, because they usually have an important sphere of influence.

Dioceses are important, and all bishops are equal, but some are more equal than others, to paraphrase George Orwell - with most autonomous churches, the parent church only steps in when the primate dies or retires, giving those churches a great deal of power.

In the specific case of the OCA, their website is extremely official because it is the website of the entire autocephalous church, but not of Orthodoxy as a whole.
 
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So what of the tradition that John Mark was a Jew, the cousin of Barnabas, one of the seventy disciples of Christ, and host of the Last Supper?

I think that validates the idea that the Syriac Orthodox liturgy of St. Mark is dedicated to him and is the main proof I was looking for, so you just sold me. Congratulations!
 
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timtams

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So the problem there is the Synaxis doesn’t contradict the OCA Hagiography’s assertion that John Mark is St. Mark of Alexandria. But this is kind of obvious; you knew I was going there, and it doesn’t matter in the end because you convinced me in a different way, by prompting me to reread the Prologue of Ohrid, reminding me of an Oriental Orthodox liturgical anomaly which seems easiest to solve if John Mark is someone else.
I am pleasantly surprised to hear this.



John Mark has not been established by these hagiographies as someone else. Indeed, even the Greek Orthodox hagiography fails to meet the bill, because St. Mark having been an idolater and a nephew of Barnabas are not incompatible positions.
Wouldn't you think though, that the Synaxis is evidence, since it lists the three Marks separately while listing members of the Seventy? Had the compiler of the Synaxis considered them one and the same, it wouldn't have been a list of seventy disciples, but of 68.


Indeed, it does not even refute the Syriac Orthodox tradition that St. Mark owned the house in which the Cenacle was located, since St. Peter could have introduced him to our Lord, and thus he would have been among the seventy on their dominical mission, and on the periphery of our Lord, and St. Peter introducing people to our Lord before His Holy Ascension is by no means inconceivable, for indeed St. Andrew the First Called introduced Simon who is called Peter to our Lord, according to the Gospel of John.
I would think that the description of Mark the Evangelist as a former pagan from Cyrene would establish that that Mark wasn't Jewish.
Papias, who is referred to by all ancient writers except Eusebius as a "disciple of John" tells us that Mark the Evangelist had not heard nor followed the Lord but became a follower of Peter. This is not contradictory to the tradition of the Cenacle (which is first extant in the sixth-century work of Alexander the Monk) as that tradition relates to John Mark. According to the Acts of Mark, Mark was a disciple of John the Baptist who began following Jesus at the time of his going forth to Galilee from Judea (John 2?).

Most of the information I used in this thread was from a recent book:
The John also called Mark
 
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But still, this does not show that there are two gospels - only that Paul and Peter had different missions / people groups to go to with the same, one gospel.

Reading 1 Peter last night, the similarities between what he writes and what Paul wrote is clear. At no point does Peter speak of a "gospel of the Kingdom" and a gospel to the gentiles in his letter - and he wrote the letter for both audiences. This would have been a perfect time to make the distinction. There is no phrase at all that I could find about a 'gospel of the Kingdom' (not that I have a problem with the phrase, only a problem at making this phrase distinctive or different from the gospel of Jesus born, lived, died, raised, ascended, and the Spirit given).

Rather, Peter speaks about:

1. The resurrection (1:3)
2. Faith (vs 5) - his phrase is 'guarded through faith'
3. Faith again in vs 7
4. Faith again in verse 9, and how salvation comes by faith
5. The sufferings of Christ (vs 11)
6. The Holy Spirit (vs 12)
7. Grace (vs 13)
8. Holiness (vs 15) - now after he has spoken about faith and grace and the Holy Spirit and the sufferings of Christ
9. Once again refers to the crucifixion in vs 19, in light of a discussion on holiness
10. Believers, the resurrection and faith (vs 21)
11. Love (vs 22)
12. The Word, the good news, the gospel (vs 25) - which he is implying he has basically outlined.

With (12) in mind, the gospel Peter has outlined has had to do with salvation by faith, the grace of God given, the crucifixion and the resurrection, and holiness in light of these concepts - and holiness is described as love. This is all in 1 Peter 1 and anyone can go read it and see that I am not picking out verses to suit me.

This is identical to Paul and John. The only difference is John works his logic in a circular way, whereas Paul works his logic in a very linear way.

As with Paul, Peter focuses on the crucifixion and the resurrection primarily in his letter, with references to the 'subsequent glories' and the ascension.

There is honestly nothing different here to Paul.

The focus on love is very Johannine. And Paul focuses a huge deal on love in his writings.

How anyone could read Paul and Peter and also John and think there are two different gospels is beyond understanding.

Who was John called to? What mission did he have? Did he have a different gospel too? Did he have Peter's gospel? Or Paul's gospel? Or his own?

Why don't you believe Galatians 2:7-9?

2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as [the gospel] of the circumcision [was] unto Peter;

And since Peter and John and Matthew are Galilean Apostles which were discipled under Jesus for 42 months, it follows that they all had the same Good News of the Kingdom of Heaven to preach to those who had been expecting it... namely the lost sheep of the house of Israel... just as they had been sent in Matthew 10. Because John 7 says Jesus would not walk in Jewry anymore after they started trying to kill Him... which made the mission field for these Apostles the lost sheep of the house of Israel... and which fit them perfectly because they are also the house of Israel. In Matthew 21:43 Jesus says He is taking the Kingdom of God away from Judah/Jerusalem because He prophesied that they would kill Him to steal His inheritance which is the world... this means that Matthew 28:18-20 was also into the nations to find the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

And of course we see Paul picking up Judah/Jerusalem in his mission to the gentiles... going first to them, just as Jesus had... and when they rejected Paul, just as they had Jesus, Paul continued on to the gentiles. (In fact, there is a little memory that's been trying to wiggle loose about the different ways Paul says the nations are held under the law, or maybe it's how they're each saved either in or through... was it grace? Paul isn't a natural fit for my mind, hence the problem.)

I see nothing wrong with any of this, given the attitudes of mankind, back in the day. These days, we are told to drop the race card and become blind to everyone the media doesn't place on a pedestal. Sometimes I'm more than half-convinced that the MSM will be the False Prophet of end times.
 
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Ligurian

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I said you would just try to reconcile them. One says he was an idolater, converted by the Peter, another that he was a Jew (cousin of Barnabas), one of the Seventy disciples. If you don't see a contradiction or problem, then I certainly don't see much point trying to demonstrate it.

The reason why the Synaxis is evidence for separate persons is because it lists exactly 70 disciples, three of whom are called Mark (Mark the Evangelist, bishop of Alexandria; John Mark bishop of Byblos; and Mark the cousin of Barnabas, bishop of Apollonia).

That reconciliation of diverse things is what I run up against, time after time ad infinitum. You have a gift for words that gets to the heart of the matter and dismisses it. I wish I had that mindset, because all I end up doing is trying to describe Rembrandt to a blind man.
 
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Ligurian

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So what of the tradition that John Mark was a Jew, the cousin of Barnabas, one of the seventy disciples of Christ, and host of the Last Supper?

wow... John 7 says Jesus would never have done that... so I'm interested in the answer as well.
 
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Why don't you believe Galatians 2:7-9?

2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as [the gospel] of the circumcision [was] unto Peter;

And since Peter and John and Matthew are Galilean Apostles which were discipled under Jesus for 42 months, it follows that they all had the same Good News of the Kingdom of Heaven to preach to those who had been expecting it... namely the lost sheep of the house of Israel... just as they had been sent in Matthew 10. Because John 7 says Jesus would not walk in Jewry anymore after they started trying to kill Him... which made the mission field for these Apostles the lost sheep of the house of Israel... and which fit them perfectly because they are also the house of Israel. In Matthew 21:43 Jesus says He is taking the Kingdom of God away from Judah/Jerusalem because He prophesied that they would kill Him to steal His inheritance which is the world... this means that Matthew 28:18-20 was also into the nations to find the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

And of course we see Paul picking up Judah/Jerusalem in his mission to the gentiles... going first to them, just as Jesus had... and when they rejected Paul, just as they had Jesus, Paul continued on to the gentiles. (In fact, there is a little memory that's been trying to wiggle loose about the different ways Paul says the nations are held under the law, or maybe it's how they're each saved either in or through... was it grace? Paul isn't a natural fit for my mind, hence the problem.)

I see nothing wrong with any of this, given the attitudes of mankind, back in the day. These days, we are told to drop the race card and become blind to everyone the media doesn't place on a pedestal. Sometimes I'm more than half-convinced that the MSM will be the False Prophet of end times.
I've offered some exegesis of both portions of 1 John and 1 Peter in my previous posts here, both Galilean apostles, showing how their teachings are similar to Paul and their gospel is one and the same, and you don't seem to have any answer for that or really haven't answered any questions I've posed.

The only scripture you seem to have to show your theory of "two gospels" is in Galatians 2:7-9. And that simply says this:

Galatians 2:7–9 (ESV): 7 On the contrary, when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been entrusted with the gospel to the circumcised 8 (for he who worked through Peter for his apostolic ministry to the circumcised worked also through me for mine to the Gentiles), 9 and when James and Cephas and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given to me, they gave the right hand of fellowship to Barnabas and me, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.

Which proves literally nothing except what I've been stating: that I agree Paul and Peter had different callings to different people groups, but the calling was to bring the same gospel to different people groups. Just like the scripture states. It states nothing about different gospels. Therefore I believe this scripture as it is stated.

You seem to hang on this verse and the KJV translation of it, it seems, as that's the only translation that seems to fit your interpretation - but only if you ignore all the other evidence produced in the KJV itself.

You haven't explained how there can be two gospels when there was (and is) only one Jesus.

You haven't explained how the same Spirit was poured over Jews and Gentiles.

You haven't explained why both John and Peter focus on faith and love, and Peter (like Paul) focuses on the crucifixion and resurrection.

You haven't explained why Peter calls both Jews and Gentiles a chosen, holy nation, together.

All you have is an old English translation of Galatians 2 and the phrase "gospel of the Kingdom" in the book of Matthew, and none of this proves in any way that there are "two gospels".

Your comments on the media are irrelevant to this point in my opinion. The promise of one people in God's Kingdom has always been in the scriptures - this is not some liberal idea but a Bible idea, and the only reason why diversity ever came into secular discussion was due to Christian values. Many of the original liberals, like Wilberforce, found the idea in the Bible.

One Kingdom under One King, with One Gospel has been Christian orthodox belief since the beginning. Racism and / or segregation has always been a heresy.
 
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timtams

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Can one of you summarise the outcome of this very interesting and cordial exchange? What's the take away?

Pretty please?
I think it was accepted that Eastern Orthodox (and RC) tradition often differentiated John Mark (bishop of Byblos) and Mark the Evangelist (bishop of Alexandria).
 
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Wouldn't you think though, that the Synaxis is evidence, since it lists the three Marks separately while listing members of the Seventy? Had the compiler of the Synaxis considered them one and the same, it wouldn't have been a list of seventy disciples, but of 68.

The problem is that the Greek Synaxis is known to be less reliable than the Coptic Synaxarion, which in turn is less reliable than the Ethiopian Synaxarion, and also, one saint can have multiple feasts.

The Roman Martyrology, which was the worst synaxarium historically, and probably still is because of ill-advised attempts to fix it, had a feast celebrating the completion of the Cathedral of St. John the Baptist and St. John the Apostle on the Lateran Hill, better known as St. John Lateran, and you can guess what happened next - people became curious about this new St. John Lateran, and the martyrology inadvertently created a new composite identity from two historical persons, the Forerunner and the Beloved Disciple. This post is not intended to be anti-Roman Catholic; my account of this hagiographical accident comes entirely from Roman Catholic liturgiological sources.
 
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Ligurian

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I've offered some exegesis of both portions of 1 John and 1 Peter in my previous posts here, both Galilean apostles, showing how their teachings are similar to Paul and their gospel is one and the same, and you don't seem to have any answer for that or really haven't answered any questions I've posed.

The only scripture you seem to have to show your theory of "two gospels" is in Galatians 2:7-9. And that simply says this:

Galatians 2:7–9 (ESV): 7 On the contrary, when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been entrusted with the gospel to the circumcised 8 (for he who worked through Peter for his apostolic ministry to the circumcised worked also through me for mine to the Gentiles), 9 and when James and Cephas and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given to me, they gave the right hand of fellowship to Barnabas and me, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.

Which proves literally nothing except what I've been stating: that I agree Paul and Peter had different callings to different people groups, but the calling was to bring the same gospel to different people groups. Just like the scripture states. It states nothing about different gospels. Therefore I believe this scripture as it is stated.

You seem to hang on this verse and the KJV translation of it, it seems, as that's the only translation that seems to fit your interpretation - but only if you ignore all the other evidence produced in the KJV itself.

You haven't explained how there can be two gospels when there was (and is) only one Jesus.

You haven't explained how the same Spirit was poured over Jews and Gentiles.

You haven't explained why both John and Peter focus on faith and love, and Peter (like Paul) focuses on the crucifixion and resurrection.

You haven't explained why Peter calls both Jews and Gentiles a chosen, holy nation, together.

All you have is an old English translation of Galatians 2 and the phrase "gospel of the Kingdom" in the book of Matthew, and none of this proves in any way that there are "two gospels".

Your comments on the media are irrelevant to this point in my opinion. The promise of one people in God's Kingdom has always been in the scriptures - this is not some liberal idea but a Bible idea, and the only reason why diversity ever came into secular discussion was due to Christian values. Many of the original liberals, like Wilberforce, found the idea in the Bible.

One Kingdom under One King, with One Gospel has been Christian orthodox belief since the beginning. Racism and / or segregation has always been a heresy.

Paul's gospel to the gentiles is entirely based on what happened at the cross, and a little about the resurrection, all from a different standpoint. Even Sidon finally had it dragged out of him that Jesus couldn't have preached the Pauline Gospel because He hadn't died yet. In fact, Jesus Himself tells you that He didn't come to speak of Himself, but of the Father... which means exactly what I've been saying... that the two gospels are nothing alike, and the doctrines which match the two are subsequently also nothing alike.

Peter's gospel to the lost sheep of the House of Israel is the Kingdom Gospel which is what Jesus taught, and is entirely apparent every time He uses the words Kingdom of Heaven/God. The Good News of the Kingdom of God/Heaven is that the King had come to Earth as Theanthropic Man. These doctrines began right after John had been put in prison, when Jesus started preaching the Kingdom Gospel, and they didn't end even when Jesus was murdered, because the Resurrection and the last sending of the Galilean Apostles into the nations is also Kingdom Gospel, and so is the Revelation.

Saying that racism and segregation is heresy... is nonsense, given the chosen people theme running throughout the OT, and on into the NT where Jesus twice uses the phrase "only unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Even Paul gets into the act when He says things like the circumcision was given the Old Covenant. To say that God and Jesus didn't separate the peoples is to lie about the Bible itself, the only purpose of which is to dismiss the chosen people en masse and create a replacement theology. While it is true that Judah is being replaced in Jeremiah 19 and Isaiah 65, with Judah being left as a curse word and God's people being called a by different name, it's not at all true that the northern part of the divided kingdom was ever to be replaced, but was to be repurposed via Jeremiah 18... so Paul's people never inherit the name Israel, but they are eligible to become spiritual Judah if they meet God's criteria.
 
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Paul's gospel to the gentiles is entirely based on what happened at the cross, and a little about the resurrection, all from a different standpoint.
Yet, reading 1 Peter, we see him bring out resurrection and cross primarily. And salvation by faith. Very similarly to Paul.

Even Sidon finally had it dragged out of him that Jesus couldn't have preached the Pauline Gospel because He hadn't died yet. In fact, Jesus Himself tells you that He didn't come to speak of Himself, but of the Father... which means exactly what I've been saying... that the two gospels are nothing alike, and the doctrines which match the two are subsequently also nothing alike.
I don't know who Sidon was / is, so I'm not sure on what authority this statement is made.

As to the quote about Jesus not speaking about himself, perhaps Sidon (or you?) have not read John 6? Or the "I AM" statements in John? Or Matthew 10:32,33? Or Matthew 16:13-15? What about what He said to the disciples at the Last Supper? These are just a few very quick examples.

Peter's gospel to the lost sheep of the House of Israel is the Kingdom Gospel which is what Jesus taught, and is entirely apparent every time He uses the words Kingdom of Heaven/God.
Yet the words "Kingdom of Heaven / God" is not mentioned in Peter's writings. And the word "Kingdom" only mentioned once in 2 Peter, about receiving a rich welcome into the Kingdom.

The words "faith", allusions to the crucifixion, the resurrection, and "belief" appear several times in the first chapter of 1 Peter alone.

The Good News of the Kingdom of God/Heaven is that the King had come to Earth as Theanthropic Man. These doctrines began right after John had been put in prison, when Jesus started preaching the Kingdom Gospel, and they didn't end even when Jesus was murdered, because the Resurrection and the last sending of the Galilean Apostles into the nations is also Kingdom Gospel, and so is the Revelation.
I agree - but only because "Kingdom gospel" and "gospel" and the "gospel of Jesus Christ" are interchangeable terms.

Saying that racism and segregation is heresy... is nonsense, given the chosen people theme running throughout the OT, and on into the NT where Jesus twice uses the phrase "only unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Even Paul gets into the act when He says things like the circumcision was given the Old Covenant. To say that God and Jesus didn't separate the peoples is to lie about the Bible itself, the only purpose of which is to dismiss the chosen people en masse and create a replacement theology. While it is true that Judah is being replaced in Jeremiah 19 and Isaiah 65, with Judah being left as a curse word and God's people being called a by different name, it's not at all true that the northern part of the divided kingdom was ever to be replaced, but was to be repurposed via Jeremiah 18... so Paul's people never inherit the name Israel, but they are eligible to become spiritual Judah if they meet God's criteria.
I don't know where I sit on replacement theology or covenant theology, but in principle I have no problem with saying that the chosen people of God are the Church of Jesus Christ - grafted in to God's promises as the One People of God. After all, "my house will be called a house of prayer for all nations." (Isaiah 56:7).

But again:

You haven't explained how there can be two gospels when there was (and is) only one Jesus.

You haven't explained how the same Spirit was poured over Jews and Gentiles.

You haven't explained why both John and Peter focus on faith and love, and Peter (like Paul) focuses on the crucifixion and resurrection. You've provided zero exegesis at all of Peter's actual writings. You've made claims about his preaching and theology but have produced no examples - not even from Acts. Nor have you provided any exegesis of John's writings. Both of these Galilean apostles' writings simply show you are wrong.

You haven't explained why Peter calls both Jews and Gentiles a chosen, holy nation, together, in his letters.

I'm beginning to suspect, to be quite honest, that you don't believe 1 Peter, 2 Peter, 1 - 3 John, Luke, John, or even Acts are authoritative writings, which is why you will keep avoiding these questions. Perhaps you are even casting doubt on Mark in this thread.

So I'll ask you this: which of the New Testament writings do you view as authoritative, inspired by the Holy Spirit, approved by Jesus, and binding on all Christians as the final authority for doctrine and living?
 
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