The Foreknowledge of God

OzSpen

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I know you are a very logical fellow (based on your use of terminology of logical fallacies) and therefore I feel as though you are merely looking for a logical answer.

On the emotional side of things, what a sad day it would be if such evil events happen and there is no purpose behind them. No overarching plan for those events. If God is not purposing them to happen, then there is no specific purpose behind them at all. After all, it is only man working these things, and not God. Can a human being give purpose to events such as Sandy Hook or paedophilia? I'd hate to think that God had no reason for the things that happened in my childhood.

But we should know better since all things (including these evil things) work together for our good (Rom 8:28).
bsd,

God is the author of logic, so when he gave us the Scriptures in written language, he provided them in a logical order and God expects me to use logic in my mind that is being renewed.

Please understand that I'm not looking for a "logical answer" as you seem to be referring, but to a hermeneutically sound interpretation of Scripture. And I find that God did not decree moral evil. I thought I covered this under #107. How can the God of light, in whom there is no darkness, decree the rape of children by paedophiles, the deaths of people in their thousands in Holocaust prison camps? This is what happens when human free will is muffled or cancelled. Secondary causes thus become, in your system, primary cause for God, the one who foreordains, for example, paedophilia.

Don't you understand the inconsistencies in your position, based on hermeneutics (biblical interpretation) that makes God into a monster who decreed the Sandy Hook massacre? Who would want to become a Christian with that kind of God?

Oz
 
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bsd,

God is the author of logic, so when he gave us the Scriptures in written language, he provided them in a logical order and God expects me to use logic in my mind that is being renewed.

Please understand that I'm not looking for a "logical answer" as you seem to be referring, but to a hermeneutically sound interpretation of Scripture. And I find that God did not decree moral evil. I thought I covered this under #107. How can the God of light, in whom there is no darkness, decree the rape of children by paedophiles, the deaths of people in their thousands in Holocaust prison camps? This is what happens when human free will is muffled or cancelled. Secondary causes thus become, in your system, primary cause for God, the one who foreordains, for example, paedophilia.

Don't you understand the inconsistencies in your position, based on hermeneutics (biblical interpretation) that makes God into a monster who decreed the Sandy Hook massacre? Who would want to become a Christian with that kind of God?

Oz

Did God decree the most heinous act in history?
 
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bsd058

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bsd,

God is the author of logic, so when he gave us the Scriptures in written language, he provided them in a logical order and God expects me to use logic in my mind that is being renewed.

Please understand that I'm not looking for a "logical answer" as you seem to be referring, but to a hermeneutically sound interpretation of Scripture. And I find that God did not decree moral evil. I thought I covered this under #107. How can the God of light, in whom there is no darkness, decree the rape of children by paedophiles, the deaths of people in their thousands in Holocaust prison camps? This is what happens when human free will is muffled or cancelled. Secondary causes thus become, in your system, primary cause for God, the one who foreordains, for example, paedophilia.

Don't you understand the inconsistencies in your position, based on hermeneutics (biblical interpretation) that makes God into a monster who decreed the Sandy Hook massacre? Who would want to become a Christian with that kind of God?

Oz
Clearly, I find your position to be inconsistent and mine consistent, and that's why we're in different camps. Since you find mine to be inconsistent with the way you understand God.

To answer your question as to who would want to become a Christian with that kind of God, I understand that this kind of omnipotent and completely sovereign (when I say sovereign I mean in control of everything) God is not something the man who is lost in sin wants. the man who is saved will want God no matter what He appears to be, since He merely wants the truth.

I admit, that it is offensive to the natural man. When I first heard of Calvinism I thought Calvinists were heretics. But I'm not going to appeal to emotion in this post. I just wanted to say that I understand where you are coming from.

This doesn't make God into a monster, though. It merely describes that everything that happens, He has a purpose for.

Let me discuss a little bit of where I'm coming from so that you can get a good idea of what I am saying. If God is not in control of everything (including the human will), then there is not a purpose for the events within history, nor can God guarantee that certain people will do certain things in accordance with His plan. He can only hope that they will. Where God's foreknowledge (in the sense of God looking down the corridors of time) comes in, we can see the dilemma: God either must God know the future or humans have free-will, but both cannot be true. We see this dilemma being adopted by many within the Arminian camp lately.

Open Theism is what I refer to, and this type of theology is starting to come to the forefront of many Wesleyan/Arminian theologies. I find it only appropriate (from the perspective of an Arminian) that in order to solve the problem of a fixed universe and humans still having free will, Arminians have brought into the debate the concept of omniscience being redefined as something along the lines of "knowing all that can be known" and then claiming that the future cannot be known, for if it could be known, God could have made people in such a way that He would know that they would choose Him and righteousness. So, in order to solve this dilemma (which is truly a dilemma where both cannot be true), we remove the aspect of God's knowledge of the future in order to keep human autonomy.

Instead of going down that route (which I believe is a heretical route) I have decided to just believe that God has His good purposes for everything that happens in the universe. I trust Him since He is God and who am I to answer Him? Will the thing molded say to the molder, "Why have you made me this way?"

You know, there is a purpose in why people reject God. And it's not just some secondary purpose. It's because God chooses who will be the recipients of His love (without regard for anything in them) and who would be the recipients of his wrath.

When speaking of his doctrine of election, Paul anticipates peoples' objections to it when he states clearly that there is no injustice with God, even though he hates some and loves others per His own will and purposes.

And you know what? This is the only way to understand that "God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose." The things that happen in the world (all things) happen for the good of those who love God. So God has a good purpose for all of these things. But a consistent Arminian cannot honestly say that, since to say that God has a purpose in it implies that the very events themselves are a part of God's plan, but that would do damage to the will of man.

I would never say that Joseph's brothers sold him into slavery was a good thing as far as we see Joseph's brothers actions and motives; but God had a good reason for decreeing this specific thing, namely to save a lot of people according to the account in Genesis.

I'd rather have a God who has a good purpose for all things that happens in the world, as opposed to a God who cannot offer me hope, nor any meaning to the actions of men. And this is what the Wesleyan/Arminian theology inevitably leads to. Open theism (denying a fundamental attribute of God), hopelessness (inability to console victims of crimes and accidents), injustice (by the Arminian consistency of thought concerning how God creates people in such a way that He knew they would reject Him and choose evil and He did not do anything to change it), the prosperity gospel (because God only wants good for all men), etc.. I could go on.

Again, I reiterate, God is not the author of evil. He decrees the events of history for His own purposes which are good. Men, produce evil from within their own hearts based upon their rebellion to Him. He tempts no one. Each man is drawn away by his own lusts.

James talks about trials producing patience and that we are to count the trials as joy since the testing of our faith produces patience. If God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose, and this includes trails of our faith which could be starvation, rape, and all other sorts of evil (as James refers to all sorts of trials), then why are you so upset with it? If men are merely getting what they deserve because they don't love God, again, why do you care so much? They are merely getting what they deserve.

James 1:13-15 - Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust. Then when lust has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and when sin is accomplished, it brings forth death.

Therefore, God, while he decrees the events of history with a purpose, does so without tempting man. Temptations themselves come from man's heart, not from God. God may decree that they occur, but He certainly isn't the one who does the tempting. That's what the hearts of men produce constantly.

Again, you might object to me saying, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” But we need to remember that we cannot question God on His decisions. His ways are far above ours. Whatever he does is good.

Our hermeneutics don't turn God into a monster. I firmly believe that your objections are not interpretational in nature. They seem to be mostly philosophical in nature. For instance, you think that God decreeing evil makes God the author of evil. Well, duh, you don't think most of us Calvinists thought of that response when we first heard of the doctrines of grace?

We just understand that while no one can resist His will, He is still good because in our flesh nothing good dwells and we all deserve His wrath, even children. Since we all deserve it, why should we accuse God of being unjust when it happens? When bad things happen to those who are saved, we know that God is working in those situations for the good of His people.

There is no inconsistency. There is a mystery, but we have faith that God's entire plan will come to pass and will prove His character to be good.

PS - I disagree with you on the logic aspect, too. God is not the author of logic. Logic itself is merely a reflection of how God thinks, since if logic were a created thing, there could be a time when logic was not. And then God's pre-existence to logic, by definition, would be logically unintelligible/inconceivable. But that's not exactly what this thread is about. Yet, logic cannot be above God, since logic would then be God and God a lesser deity.
 
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ChaseWind

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Chase,

It was my purpose to address these issues in my post at #107. Was that not adequate for you to understand that the God of light, in whom there is no evil, does not decree moral evil?

Oz, what do you do with the verses that show clearly God has decreed and in providence is shown having sin and moral evil in his plan. Do you reject this God?

"I am raising up the Chaldaeans, that savage and impetuous nation, who march far and wide over the earth to seize and occupy what is not theirs." (Hab 1:6, REB)

"I shall stir up the Medes against them; they cannot be bought off with silver, nor be tempted by gold; they have no pity on little children and spare no mother’s son." (Isa 13:17-18, REB)

"Sharpen the arrows, fill the quivers. The Lord has roused the spirit of the king of the Medes; for the Lord’s purpose against Babylon is to destroy it, and his vengeance is vengeance for his temple." (Jer 51:11, REB)

"David said to Abishai and to all his servants, ‘If my very own son is out to kill me, who can wonder at this Benjamite? Let him be, let him curse; for the Lord has told him to." (2Sam 16:11, REB)

"This is the word of the Lord: I shall bring trouble on you from within your own family. I shall take your wives and give them to another man before your eyes, and he will lie with them in broad daylight. What you did was done in secret; but I shall do this in broad daylight for all Israel to see.’" (2Sam 12:11-12, REB)

"‘He has blinded their eyes and dulled their minds, lest they should see with their eyes, and perceive with their minds, and turn to me to heal them.’" (John 12:40, REB)

"That is why God puts them under a compelling delusion, which makes them believe what is false," (2Thess 2:11, REB)

"You see, then, how the Lord has put a lying spirit in the mouths of all these prophets of yours, because he has decreed disaster for you.’" (1Kgs 22:23, REB)

You seem to reject my God, as I understand you, I reject your god as one who has lost control of creation and it is nothing but chaos.
 
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OzSpen

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Oz, what do you do with the verses that show clearly God has decreed and in providence is shown having sin and moral evil in his plan. Do you reject this God?

"I am raising up the Chaldaeans, that savage and impetuous nation, who march far and wide over the earth to seize and occupy what is not theirs." (Hab 1:6, REB)

"I shall stir up the Medes against them; they cannot be bought off with silver, nor be tempted by gold; they have no pity on little children and spare no mother’s son." (Isa 13:17-18, REB)

"Sharpen the arrows, fill the quivers. The Lord has roused the spirit of the king of the Medes; for the Lord’s purpose against Babylon is to destroy it, and his vengeance is vengeance for his temple." (Jer 51:11, REB)

"David said to Abishai and to all his servants, ‘If my very own son is out to kill me, who can wonder at this Benjamite? Let him be, let him curse; for the Lord has told him to." (2Sam 16:11, REB)

"This is the word of the Lord: I shall bring trouble on you from within your own family. I shall take your wives and give them to another man before your eyes, and he will lie with them in broad daylight. What you did was done in secret; but I shall do this in broad daylight for all Israel to see.’" (2Sam 12:11-12, REB)

"‘He has blinded their eyes and dulled their minds, lest they should see with their eyes, and perceive with their minds, and turn to me to heal them.’" (John 12:40, REB)

"That is why God puts them under a compelling delusion, which makes them believe what is false," (2Thess 2:11, REB)

"You see, then, how the Lord has put a lying spirit in the mouths of all these prophets of yours, because he has decreed disaster for you.’" (1Kgs 22:23, REB)

You seem to reject my God, as I understand you, I reject your god as one who has lost control of creation and it is nothing but chaos.
You seem to be confusing two aspects of God's action: (1) He does not decree moral evil, as in Sandy Hook and the Holocaust, but he (2) Sends disaster in judgment, as in the examples you gave above from the OT.

I've provided answers to your Scriptures (which you have posted previously and I read them) in #107 above. I'll not be going over them again as I consider that that post provided a more than adequate answer to your position.

There is no evidence in your Scriptures of anything close to, 'I the Lord decree that children should be raped by paedophiles; Jews should be slaughtered in the Holocaust'.

We are not likely to reach agreement as you seem to be so fixated on quoting verses that have nothing to do with the issue I have raised: Does God decree moral evil? No he does not (I have not found biblical evidence yet, to support such a view). Does God decree disaster, calamity, woe as judgment? Yes he does (as your Scriptures declare)'. But they are far from affirming that God foreordains moral evil.

Is there really any point in discussing this further when we have two different approaches to hermeneutics?

Oz
 
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OzSpen

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bsd,
Open Theism is what I refer to, and this type of theology is starting to come to the forefront of many Wesleyan/Arminian theologies. I find it only appropriate (from the perspective of an Arminian) that in order to solve the problem of a fixed universe and humans still having free will, Arminians have brought into the debate the concept of omniscience being redefined as something along the lines of "knowing all that can be known" and then claiming that the future cannot be known, for if it could be known, God could have made people in such a way that He would know that they would choose Him and righteousness. So, in order to solve this dilemma (which is truly a dilemma where both cannot be true), we remove the aspect of God's knowledge of the future in order to keep human autonomy.
I would never build my theology on those who are extremists in the Arminian camp. I hope you don't build your theology on extremists in the Calvinistic camp, such as the many in my part of the world who have become thorough-going liberals, with no time for proclaiming the Scriptures and have a very low regard for the Bible. Extremists should declare that they are extremists and that this is not what the Bible teachers, whether we are talking of Arminians or Calvinists.
Let me discuss a little bit of where I'm coming from so that you can get a good idea of what I am saying. If God is not in control of everything (including the human will), then there is not a purpose for the events within history, nor can God guarantee that certain people will do certain things in accordance with His plan. He can only hope that they will. Where God's foreknowledge (in the sense of God looking down the corridors of time) comes in, we can see the dilemma: God either must God know the future or humans have free-will, but both cannot be true. We see this dilemma being adopted by many within the Arminian camp lately.
You are creating your own dilemma here because of your Calvinistic presuppositions regarding free-will. God in his sovereignty has so allowed for free-will decisions to fit in with his plan for all humanity throughout history. You seem to be fixated on God having to so control human beings (not allowing genuine free-will) that you can't see the God who is revealed in Scripture who has given human beings free-will and this fits like a hand in glove with his sovereign purposes.

Only when you rule this out a priori, as you seem to be doing in this post, can you reach your Calvinistic conclusions about the inappropriate nature of my conclusions. When I go to the Scriptures, as expounded in post #107, it is there that I find the God who is contrary to the one you are portraying.

May I say in closing that I am 100% open to consideration of your view. To this point of my Christian journey, I can't accept it as I see so many theological holes and inconsistencies in it. My post at #107 has given brief biblical reasons for not accepting your view that God decrees all moral evil - including the rape of children by paedophiles. Please don't come back and say that this is an emotional response. It is NOT. It shows the direct practical application of your views in the contemporary world.

Oz
 
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You seem to be confusing two aspects of God's action: (1) He does not decree moral evil, as in Sandy Hook and the Holocaust, but he (2) Sends disaster in judgment, as in the examples you gave above from the OT.

I've provided answers to your Scriptures (which you have posted previously and I read them) in #107 above. I'll not be going over them again as I consider that that post provided a more than adequate answer to your position.

There is no evidence in your Scriptures of anything close to, 'I the Lord decree that children should be raped by paedophiles; Jews should be slaughtered in the Holocaust'.

We are not likely to reach agreement as you seem to be so fixated on quoting verses that have nothing to do with the issue I have raised: Does God decree moral evil? No he does not (I have not found biblical evidence yet, to support such a view). Does God decree disaster, calamity, woe as judgment? Yes he does (as your Scriptures declare)'. But they are far from affirming that God foreordains moral evil.

Is there really any point in discussing this further when we have two different approaches to hermeneutics?

Oz

Did God decree the most heinous act in history? (Don't worry. We all know why you are avoiding answering this question)
 
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ChaseWind

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You seem to be confusing two aspects of God's action: (1) He does not decree moral evil, as in Sandy Hook and the Holocaust, but he (2) Sends disaster in judgment, as in the examples you gave above from the OT.

I've provided answers to your Scriptures (which you have posted previously and I read them) in #107 above. I'll not be going over them again as I consider that that post provided a more than adequate answer to your position.

There is no evidence in your Scriptures of anything close to, 'I the Lord decree that children should be raped by paedophiles; Jews should be slaughtered in the Holocaust'.

We are not likely to reach agreement as you seem to be so fixated on quoting verses that have nothing to do with the issue I have raised: Does God decree moral evil? No he does not (I have not found biblical evidence yet, to support such a view). Does God decree disaster, calamity, woe as judgment? Yes he does (as your Scriptures declare)'. But they are far from affirming that God foreordains moral evil.

Is there really any point in discussing this further when we have two different approaches to hermeneutics?

Oz
Oz, if you do not see the moral evil in the passages I quoted you illustrate the old saying, "None is so blind as he who refuses to see". All disasters of a natural kind: floods, typhoons, tornadoes, earthquakes, famine, pestilence, etc., are due to sin. It is judgment. The same holds true for moral evils, they are in judgment upon sin as well. I cannot see the distinction you are trying to make. All death comes from judgment on sin whether out of the barrel of a wicked man's gun or from floods. They are all ordained of God and in his decree and Scriptures are so clear the church has always seen it to be so. Again, to foreordain or decree does not make God the author or efficient cause of sin or moral evil.
 
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OzSpen

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Oz, if you do not see the moral evil in the passages I quoted you illustrate the old saying, "None is so blind as he who refuses to see". All disasters of a natural kind: floods, typhoons, tornadoes, earthquakes, famine, pestilence, etc., are due to sin. It is judgment. The same holds true for moral evils, they are in judgment upon sin as well. I cannot see the distinction you are trying to make. All death comes from judgment on sin whether out of the barrel of a wicked man's gun or from floods. They are all ordained of God and in his decree and Scriptures are so clear the church has always seen it to be so. Again, to foreordain or decree does not make God the author or efficient cause of sin or moral evil.
The application of your view is that God decrees the rape of children by paedophiles.

Please go back to my post at #107 for a distinction of moral evil vs catastrophe/disaster.
 
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now faith

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Oz, if you do not see the moral evil in the passages I quoted you illustrate the old saying, "None is so blind as he who refuses to see". All disasters of a natural kind: floods, typhoons, tornadoes, earthquakes, famine, pestilence, etc., are due to sin. It is judgment. The same holds true for moral evils, they are in judgment upon sin as well. I cannot see the distinction you are trying to make. All death comes from judgment on sin whether out of the barrel of a wicked man's gun or from floods. They are all ordained of God and in his decree and Scriptures are so clear the church has always seen it to be so. Again, to foreordain or decree does not make God the author or efficient cause of sin or moral evil.

I believe what you see as God carrying out directly may be a misunderstanding of semantics.

You are seeing God in action of verb as formative,not causative.

God warns of the up coming destruction in a causative since.

So what is being stated is because you have not walked in my commandments,these things will come up on you,due to your actions.

Walking in sin will bring death,and God was telling them his hedge,and favor would be removed.

This invokes a causative action from other surrounding,threats.
 
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Eph 1:7-14
In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace, which he lavished upon us, in all wisdom and insight making known to us the mystery of his will, according to his purpose, which he set forth in Christ as a plan for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth. In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will, so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, who is the guarantee of our inheritance until we acquire possession of it, to the praise of his glory.

In arguing from the greater to the lesser, one can infer that if God works all things according to the council of His will, then it stands to reason that the subset of evil things are included in this.

{All things} := {{Evil Things}, {Non-evil things}, {nil}}. Of course there are plenty of other subsets included in evil and in non-evil things, but these generic categories should suffice.

I know you are a very logical fellow (based on your use of terminology of logical fallacies) and therefore I feel as though you are merely looking for a logical answer.

On the emotional side of things, what a sad day it would be if such evil events happen and there is no purpose behind them. No overarching plan for those events. If God is not purposing them to happen, then there is no specific purpose behind them at all. After all, it is only man working these things, and not God. Can a human being give purpose to events such as Sandy Hook or paedophilia? I'd hate to think that God had no reason for the things that happened in my childhood.

But we should know better since all things (including these evil things) work together for our good (Rom 8:28).


[/I But we should know better since all things (including these evil things) work together for our good (Rom 8:28).[/QUOTE] ]


I believe this quote on Romans 8: 28 is why you have missed the mark.

You have taken this verse out of context,you view it as a panacea.

Even Paul did not believe that all things that happen work together on earth for good.

In the epistle to Thessalonians he stated I would be with you but Satan withstood me up.

Nothing for Paul was good being held up by Satan.

Was Adam's fall for good,no death was a result.

The intent of 8:28 was a teaching on prayer,of the spirit

.[/QUOTE] 8:25 But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it. 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. 8:27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.:angel: Romans 8:28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.
8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified. 8:31 What shall we then say to these things? If God be for us, who can be against us? 8:32 He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not with him also freely give us all things? 8:33 Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth. 8:34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at Romans

(For we hope and see not)= 8:28 (because he maketh intercession for the saints)=8:28


(If God be for us)= 8:28( to them he justified he glorified)=8:28( it is God that justifieth)=8:28

(Who are called according to his purpose), are all men called ?

After we have served a commission,a purpose,will no bad thing happen?

Much of your thought train is based on this type of view on a verse,but you have to rightly divide the word.
 
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The application of your view is that God decrees the rape of children by paedophiles.

Please go back to my post at #107 for a distinction of moral evil vs catastrophe/disaster.

Did God decree the most heinous act in history?
 
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ChaseWind

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The application of your view is that God decrees the rape of children by paedophiles.

Please go back to my post at #107 for a distinction of moral evil vs catastrophe/disaster.

You keep saying go back to #107 where you quote out of a book, apparently because you cannot explain it in your own words and I doubt you understand what you quoted from the book.

Yes, God's decree does indeed include the most minute details and that includes the rape of children by pedophiles even though the act and moral responsibility is on the rapist. Is that emotional argument supposed to carry some weight? Like these women who stick the yellow sign in the car window: "Baby on Board" So? I have my grandmother and myself onboard in my car, so what? You are using nothing but an emotional ploy to contradict the plain statements of Scripture.

Is that victim of pedophile rape of more value than the Son of God? What is said of Him, the moral evil of the crucifixion of Jesus?

"For the Son of Man is going as it has been determined, but woe to that one by whom he is betrayed!" (Luk 22:22 NRSV)

For indeed the Son of Man goes on His way--His pre-destined way; yet alas for that man who is betraying Him!" (Luk 22:22 WNT)

For the Son of Man is going his appointed way; but alas for that man by whom he is betrayed!’ (Luke 22:22, REB)

Maybe if you read it in basic English you can grasp it.... ;)

For it will be done to the Son of man after the purpose of God, but unhappy is that man by whom he is given up. (Luk 22:22 BBE)

Oz, you keep referencing a book in #107; and others quote the Scripture to you. Which are you going to believe?
 
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crimsonleaf

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Did God decree the most heinous act in history?
I know Oz will see this a cyber-gossip, but WHEN dear friend, will you realise that Oz has no intention of answering your question as it will throw his view into a terminal downward spiral from which there will be no recovery.

Perhaps he will now understand what we mean when we say "man is able, but not willing". See, it works on all levels.
 
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Skala

I'm a Saint. Not because of me, but because of Him
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You see Hammster, this doesn't quite tug at the heartstrings as effectively. The torture and murder of the sinless Son of God is bad, but the rape of a son of Adam in infancy is really really really bad!!!

Griff is correct. When fighting against Calvinism, it's best to leave out the doctrine of sin.
 
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guuila

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Oz, Did God decree the most heinous act in history?

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