The Euthyphro Dilemma

Strivax

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This is more Philosophy of Religion than Theology, though theologians have by no means ignored the issue.

The version originally attributed to Socrates (c470-399 BC) by Plato runs as follows:

Is the pious loved by the Gods because it is pious, or is it pious because it is loved by the Gods?

If the former, the Gods owe allegiance to some higher power than themselves that constrains them, namely, the pious; if the latter the pious is a matter of their whim, and they could equally well not love the pious at all, but, perhaps, the impious, instead, which they could call pious.

In fact, this dilemma can be asked of any authority and moral absolute.

For example; is what is right, right because the party says it is right, or does the party say it is right, because it is right?

But, for me, the formulation that hits the spot, and has afforded me many happy hours of contemplation, is this one:

Is the good, good, because God wills it so, or does God will it so, because it is good?

To the best of my knowledge, this question has yet to be satisfactorily answered.

If the former, the good is merely a divine opinion, and anything that is good could conceivably be otherwise, and anything otherwise could conceivably be good. Genocide, for example, might have been good, and liberty might have been bad. If the latter, then, as before, God owes His allegiance is to something prior and more vital than Himself that constrains Him. I find neither option palatable.

This is how I currently resolve the matter. I consider the moral absolutes to be aspects of Gods nature. The Good, the Just, the Merciful, the Kind, the Right, the Fair, the Beautiful, the True, the Brave, etc, would not exist at all if He did not exist, and He makes them manifest simply by being. God would just not be God if they did not exist and He did not, by Himself being, bring them to be. Just as you would not be you without your nature and did not, by being, bring your nature to be.

The moral absolutes, and God, therefore, are mutually interdependent. To the extent that they exist partially or at all in His world, it is because they are His metaphysical shadow on His creation.

As usual, your comments and criticisms are always welcome.

Best wishes, Strivax.
 
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BobRyan

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Is the good, good, because God wills it so, or does God will it so, because it is good?
Is it wrong to put your bare hand on a hot stove because that does damage to your hand - or is it wrong because your mother told you not to do it?

We could argue that God can change the laws of physics so that putting your hand on the hot stove is not at all harmful and you should do it as often as you can... but it is more logical to say that God knowing all things, knowing all difficulties views them all as being equal to the trivial point of not placing your bare hand on a hot stove, and that it is senseless to override that effect at all times - it would serve no purpose.

Obeying God's Word is always the right thing to do.

He tells us not to be foolish or brain-impaired so we don't put our bare hands on a hot stove - yet for the 3 friends of Daniel - they were told to take an action that would end up getting them tossed into a fiery furnace.
 
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DialecticSkeptic

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Is the good, good, because God wills it so, or does God will it so, because it is good?

In short, "Is God's will a good-maker or a good-bearer?" I would say the latter (good-bearer) because God is good (good-maker), insofar as good is identical with God (it's not a moral property he possesses).

Okay, pick that one apart for flaws.
 
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public hermit

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I consider the moral absolutes to be aspects of Gods nature

That's the answer to the false dichotomy. Honestly, of you're going to read Plato's dialogue Euthyphro, it needs to be followed by reading the Symposium ( fair warning to fundies and those with prejudices- don't read it; it will hurt your sensibilities), particularly Diotima's account of love, which ultimately arrives at the ultimate good/beauty, i.e, divinity. All other forms, Platonic forms, are derivative, and so the dichotomy is resolved.

 
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BobRyan

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In short, "Is God's will a good-maker or a good-bearer?" I would say the latter (good-bearer) because God is good (good-maker), insofar as good is identical with God (it's not a moral property he possesses).

Okay, pick that one apart for flaws.
"God's Will".

"God is not willing that any should perish" 2 Peter 3. Yet He predicts that the "many" on the wide road of Matt 7 -- will do just that.
 
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Strivax

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In short, "Is God's will a good-maker or a good-bearer?" I would say the latter (good-bearer) because God is good (good-maker), insofar as good is identical with God (it's not a moral property he possesses).

Okay, pick that one apart for flaws.

Hmmm. I am not sure your paraphrase does justice to the subtlety of the conundrum. Either with have God subservient to some higher power, or we have an arbitrary goodness. Which do you want? Or is there some way to resolve the dilemma that involves neither option?

Best wishes, Strivax.
 
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DialecticSkeptic

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Either [we] have God subservient to some higher power, or we have an arbitrary goodness.

No.


Or is there some way to resolve the dilemma that involves neither option?

Yes, the one that I posted (emphasis added):

The will of God is a good-bearer, as it comes from God who is the good-maker (insofar as good is identical with God, not a moral property he possesses).

-- DialecticSkeptic
 
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2PhiloVoid

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That's the answer to the false dichotomy. Honestly, of you're going to read Plato's dialogue Euthyphro, it needs to be followed by reading the Symposium ( fair warning to fundies and those with prejudices- don't read it; it will hurt your sensibilities), particularly Diotima's account of love, which ultimately arrives at the ultimate good/beauty, i.e, divinity. All other forms, Platonic forms, are derivative, and so the dichotomy is resolved.


Y'know, I hadn't yet read the Symposium and so I thought I'd pick it up and give it a go. I'm about 15 pages into it ..........I'm not very impressed thus far. You weren't kidding about sensibilities either. Dang.
 
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public hermit

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Y'know, I hadn't yet read the Symposium and so I thought I'd pick it up and give it a go. I'm about 15 pages into it ..........I'm not very impressed thus far. You weren't kidding about sensibilities either. Dang.

Yeah, Diotima's ladder of love makes the point that love seeks ultimate good/beauty, which is ultimately divinity. It was my point that the identity of divinity with the good/beautiful should solve the apparent dichotomy assumed in Euthyphro. I asserted that very confidently in my post above. ^_^ But I'm sure a counter point is available and could be cogently argued.

But yeah, the boy loving Greeks were unabashed in that practice. I don't pay attention to that. I take what is good and leave the rest. I have no interest in defending their practice but also am not opposed to taking from that writing the good I can use.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Yeah, Diotima's ladder of love makes the point that love seeks ultimate good/beauty, which is ultimately divinity. It was my point that the identity of divinity with the good/beautiful should solve the apparent dichotomy assumed in Euthyphro. I asserted that very confidently in my post above. ^_^ But I'm sure a counter point is available and could be cogently argued.

But yeah, the boy loving Greeks were unabashed in that practice. I don't pay attention to that. I take what is good and leave the rest. I have no interest in defending their practice but also am not opposed to taking from that writing the good I can use.

Oh, I'm not looking to offer a counterpoint. I'm just wanting to get through my read of Symposium. As far as the Euthyphro is concerned, I think you already know that I have a completely different approach to dismantling it and I don't want to get into any of that here. It's not my focus at the moment.

But thanks for the heads up on Plato's Symposium!
 
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ViaCrucis

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Hmmm. I am not sure your paraphrase does justice to the subtlety of the conundrum. Either with have God subservient to some higher power, or we have an arbitrary goodness. Which do you want? Or is there some way to resolve the dilemma that involves neither option?

Best wishes, Strivax.

The answer to the dilemma, from Augustine to Anselm to Aquinas is that God is good. That is, God is not subject to a higher order, nor is goodness the arbitrary whims of God; rather God is The Good. God is therefore subject only to Himself, He is the highest order, the highest good, and what He commands is of Himself, that innate good. Thus the dilemma is rejected as a false dilemma. God does not command good because He is subject to a higher order of goodness; neither is good good simply because God commands it (the implication being God could say anything is good and it would be good). God is The Good, and thus what He commands is in conformity with Himself. God is not good because He possesses goodness, God is good because that is God being Himself.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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