thereselittleflower said:
The Eucharist requires outward signs . . .
What about the Trinity would require an outward sign as part of the doctrine itself?
So this doctrine has no requirements that go with it then? Except for us to view the Trinity as doctrine? I read what CaDan said and that was not the first time I heard this, kinda why I was staying with this line of questions.
thereselittleflower said:
As part of what the doctrine is, in regards to what the doctrine itself requires.
For intance, the Doctrine regarding Baptism requires water. The Doctrine regarding Holy Orders requires the laying on of hands. The Doctrine regarding Annointing the Sick requires Holy Oil.
What distinguishes practices that are not required and those outward signs that are, is what the dodtrine itself requires.
So in reference to what the Doctrine requires, the finer points must be made. For example for Baptism water is required but what about the water holds significance to that Doctrine? What do you do with the water? Its purpose is?
In the Annointing of the Sick it requires Holy Oil but what is its purpose? A requirement of doctrine must have been made a requirement out of purpose, or one can argue necessity but if that be the case it underlines the importance of that requirements purpose. No?
thereselittleflower said:
In general though, I would suspect that it had to do with the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple and most of the Jewish Christians . . . One would not expect to see traditions Jewish Chrstians may have cherished, but were not part of the doctrines of the Christian faith, to have transferred over to Gentile Christians.
Does this make sense?
Yes it makes sense. So then the development of Doctrine has steps it must take. Like step one would be inception. So where did/does the inception of Doctrine take place? Is it born a puppy, inception, and starts to get fed, grow, and develop. At what point are the requirements outlined as simply requirements and no longer just traditions associated with it? Were the requirements always present and always recognized as such?
thereselittleflower said:
Not knowing specifically what you are referring to, it is hard to address specfics, but they would never have been part of the developing doctrine of the Church. . .
I am not trying to be specific, this is about Doctrine and at this point am trying to stay away from specific Doctrine... that can be discussed elsewhere. I think this is where I disagree. If the jewish christians had traditions which were kept, at some point, they must have been deemed either non applicable or simply traditions. But then don't we have to run with the notion that it was "part" of the developing doctrine, because it was present in the beginning at inception? Wether is stood the test of time is a different matter.
thereselittleflower said:
Please give me an example of what you are talking about for your question makes no sense the way I understand Sacred Tradition and its outward signs.
Take the Eucharist or Communion as I grew up calling it.
It is a Sacred Tradition a Basic, doctrine. It requires Christ's "flesh" the bread, wafer.... and Christ's "blood" the wine, or grape juice..... It requires the partakers. It requires the giver. It requires previous knowledge of Christ.
To me these are essential requirements to the doctrine or Sacred Tradition... we have evidence of its inception, multiple times in the Bible, so at what point did these requirement make a cohesive doctrine. In other words did its development and outlining of requirements came as it withstood time?
But then I am left asking is the Doctrine or Sacred Tradition fully present at its inception?
In other words the dog is fully grown now, and at some point that will become a full reality to him. He can no longer run all day, or fit under the coffee table. Because the dog has not realized its fully grown does that mean its still a puppy?
Warrior Poet