The Apostle Paul take on salvations in Romans 4. Thoughts?

Lionel20

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In Romans chapter 4 AMP, the apostle Paul writes in verse 2 "...if Abraham was justified [that is, acquitted from the guilt of his sins] by works [those things he did that were good], he has something to boast about..."

In verse 3 Paul expounds, emphasizing that Abram first "trusted" God's words in Gen. 15:5. God responds by--"crediting" him with "righteousness". My underlying assumption is that Paul acquiesces with Matthew 25:46 which clearly states that the "righteous" will come into "eternal life". Essentially, Abram believes God is capable of fulfilling his promise in Gen. 15:5, and God issues salvation to Abram.

Paul goes on in Romans 4 arguing that Abram couldn't have possibly earned righteousness. In the Romans 4 example, righteousness, and therefore eternal life is a gift offered to those that have faith in God's promises alone.

If Paul is correct here, then the only prerequisite to life eternal is to grow in ones ability to hear God and once we decipher his words, believe in them.

Is there anymore to salvation than this?
 

Daniel9v9

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That Jesus died for the sins of the world is an external and objective reality. It's not a thing or a quality inside of us. That is, we didn't conjure it up, we didn't work for it, we didn't seek it, we didn't want it, we didn't think of it, for we were dead in sins and children of wrath. And while we were enemies of God, in His great love He sent His only Son to redeem us.

What Paul is saying is that good works do not merit salvation. God convicts us of our sin through His Law, where we realise that we are sinful - this leads to contrition and repentance, and through the Gospel, we receive the comfort of God's forgiveness of sins. This is all the work of the Holy Spirit.

So, God justifies us - declares us righteous - because of the person and works of our Lord Jesus Christ. Following justification comes sanctification - the gradual process of being moulded into the image of Christ, which is the result of faith, the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

In this way, good works (before God that is) do not precede faith, that we should have anything to boast about, but they follow faith as a consequence of faith. So saving faith is a gift. It's a firm God-given trust in the person and works of Jesus Christ, that we believe His promise of salvation, and from and out of this trust comes obedience and good works.

I think Ephesians sums this up the best: "For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them."
 
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hedrick

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Many of these crucial words have a range of meanings. That’s true of justification. It can refer to God declaring us to be in the right. But it can also mean recognizing that someone is in the right.

I understand the example of Abraham as being more recognition. That is, we can tell that he is in the right because of his faith. But note that Paul goes on to say that we can see his faith because of what he does based on it.

However in other places justification is used for God putting us in a proper relationship with himself, e.g. Rom 3:24 or 4:25. Justification leads to eternal life (Rom 5:21).

However justification isn’t quite the same as salvation. You’ll note that Paul never says we are saved by faith, although salvation is a consequence of faith in Christ’s death. (e.g Rom 10;9).

Why should these by different if they are both a consequence of faith? They’re obviously related closely. Justification seems to be largely current, being in good standing with God. Salvation is a broader thing, of which justification is a part. But salvation includes the future, including eternal life.

I think the reason for the difference in wording is that justification can be imputed but salvation can't. Justification is status, acceptance or acquittal. The judge declared you not guilty, but in a sense it's external to you. It's the judge's judgement on you. But being saved actually changes you, as described at the beginning of Rom 6.
 
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Lionel20

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That Jesus died for the sins of the world is an external and objective reality. It's not a thing or a quality inside of us. That is, we didn't conjure it up, we didn't work for it, we didn't seek it, we didn't want it, we didn't think of it, for we were dead in sins and children of wrath. And while we were enemies of God, in His great love He sent His only Son to redeem us.

What Paul is saying is that good works do not merit salvation. God convicts us of our sin through His Law, where we realise that we are sinful - this leads to contrition and repentance, and through the Gospel, we receive the comfort of God's forgiveness of sins. This is all the work of the Holy Spirit.

So, God justifies us - declares us righteous - because of the person and works of our Lord Jesus Christ. Following justification comes sanctification - the gradual process of being moulded into the image of Christ, which is the result of faith, the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

In this way, good works (before God that is) do not precede faith, that we should have anything to boast about, but they follow faith as a consequence of faith. So saving faith is a gift. It's a firm God-given trust in the person and works of Jesus Christ, that we believe His promise of salvation, and from and out of this trust comes obedience and good works.

I think Ephesians sums this up the best: "For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them."

Ok,

What would Jesus' resurrection mean to us if we didn't, as Abram did, "believe" in God's words? It would mean death.

Does the resurrection of Christ bring life to those that don't believe in the resurrection?

I think Paul is explaining the general manner in which obtain salvation.
 
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Zao is life

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In Romans chapter 4 AMP, the apostle Paul writes in verse 2 "...if Abraham was justified [that is, acquitted from the guilt of his sins] by works [those things he did that were good], he has something to boast about..."

In verse 3 Paul expounds, emphasizing that Abram first "trusted" God's words in Gen. 15:5. God responds by--"crediting" him with "righteousness". My underlying assumption is that Paul acquiesces with Matthew 25:46 which clearly states that the "righteous" will come into "eternal life". Essentially, Abram believes God is capable of fulfilling his promise in Gen. 15:5, and God issues salvation to Abram.

Paul goes on in Romans 4 arguing that Abram couldn't have possibly earned righteousness. In the Romans 4 example, righteousness, and therefore eternal life is a gift offered to those that have faith in God's promises alone.

If Paul is correct here, then the only prerequisite to life eternal is to grow in ones ability to hear God and once we decipher his words, believe in them.

Is there anymore to salvation than this?
* Righteousness is linked to God's perfect moral standard, and God's love, mercy, grace and justice, of which the law is a shadow.

* Righteousness is law-abiding. Unrighteousness is against law, hence lawlessness, with or without the written law. which came 430 years after Abraham was credited with righteousness because of his faith in God and in the Word of God.

* It was not Abraham's "righteousness" that was credited to Abraham for righteousness, it was his faith in God and in the Word of God that was credited to Him for righteousness.

The ten commandments remain a shadow of God's perfection, but we are unrighteous, born with the propensity to sin, therefore we cannot obtain righteousness (or, better put, "the stamp of righteousness") through self-effort. The stamp of righteousness has to be given to us, credited to us or we have none - and that stamp of righteousness comes to us through Christ, "the last Adam" and Son of man, who represents man to God and God to man.

He is our advocate with the Father - "the LORD our righteousness". He is called "the LORD our righteousness" in scripture because He is righteous, and His life before His crucifixion and death for our sin also perfectly expressed the perfect standard of God, and hence perfectly obeyed the law, which is a shadow of it, which we completely fail to always obey perfectly, because of our sin.

This gift of righteousness (Paul tells us it's a gift) must and can only come to us through being born from above of the Spirit of Christ, so we are found in Him spiritually, and through our faith in Him.

In our first birth, which was physical, we were born into Adam, whose spirit died when he sinned. Our second birth is from above, and is spiritual, and places us in the last Adam, the Son of God and Son of man who represents us before God. This is what it means to be "clothed in His righteousness".
 
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Lionel20

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Many of these crucial words have a range of meanings. That’s true of justification. It can refer to God declaring us to be in the right. But it can also mean recognizing that someone is in the right.

I understand the example of Abraham as being more recognition. That is, we can tell that he is in the right because of his faith. But note that Paul goes on to say that we can see his faith because of what he does based on it.

However in other places justification is used for God putting us in a proper relationship with himself, e.g. Rom 3:24 or 4:25. Justification leads to eternal life (Rom 5:21).

However justification isn’t quite the same as salvation. You’ll note that Paul never says we are saved by faith, although salvation is a consequence of faith in Christ’s death. (e.g Rom 10;9).

Why should these by different if they are both a consequence of faith? They’re obviously related closely. Justification seems to be largely current, being in good standing with God. Salvation is a broader thing, of which justification is a part. But salvation includes the future, including eternal life.

I think the reason for the difference in wording is that justification can be imputed but salvation can't. Justification is status, acceptance or acquittal. The judge declared you not guilty, but in a sense it's external to you. It's the judge's judgement on you. But being saved actually changes you, as described at the beginning of Rom 6.

There is no salvation minus Christ' death and resurrection. The resurrection however does not equate to all mankind entering eternal life. We still have to listen and follow to what God says -- to what extent doesn't appear to be spelled-out -- in order to be counted as righteous.
 
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Daniel9v9

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Ok,

What would Jesus' resurrection mean to us if we didn't, as Abram did, "believe" in God's words? It would mean death.

Does the resurrection of Christ bring life to those that don't believe in the resurrection?

I think Paul is explaining the general manner in which obtain salvation.

No, unbelievers do not see the benefit of God's grace, because they reject it.

Scriptures talk about justification in two senses: (1) In a specific or particular sense, which is salvation; justification through faith in Jesus Christ. (Most of the time when we talk about justification, we mean this sense) And (2) in a broad sense, that the sins of the whole world have been paid for, and that the entire cosmos is being restored. This does not mean Apocatastasis (or universalism - the idea that everyone is saved), but rather that Christ did truly die for all. Not just some. Now, if people reject God's grace, namely, the person and works of Christ, and His promise of salvation, they will remain condemned.

So, very simply: All who believe (trust) in the person and works of Jesus Christ and are baptised into the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, one God, are justified, clothed in Christ's righteousness, adopted and given life eternal. All who don't believe in Jesus or God's promise of grace rejects grace, and remains condemned. John 3:18, Mark 16:16

Salvation, from beginning to end, is from God. Damnation, from beginning to end, is from man.
 
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Lionel20

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* Righteousness is linked to God's perfect moral standard, and God's love, mercy, grace and justice, of which the law is a shadow.

* Righteousness is law-abiding. Unrighteousness is against law, hence lawlessness, with or without the written law. which came 430 years after Abraham was credited with righteousness because of his faith in God and in the Word of God.

* It was not Abraham's "righteousness" that was credited to Abraham for righteousness, it was his faith in God and in the Word of God that was credited to Him for righteousness.

The ten commandments remain a shadow of God's perfection, but we are unrighteous, born with the propensity to sin, therefore we cannot obtain righteousness (or, better put, "the stamp of righteousness") through self-effort. The stamp of righteousness has to be given to us, credited to us or we have none - and that stamp of righteousness comes to us through Christ, "the last Adam" and Son of man, who represents man to God and God to man.

He is our advocate with the Father - "the LORD our righteousness". He is called "the LORD our righteousness" in scripture because He is righteous, and His life before His crucifixion and death for our sin also perfectly expressed the perfect standard of God, and hence perfectly obeyed the law, which is a shadow of it, which we completely fail to always obey perfectly, because of our sin.

This gift of righteousness (Paul tells us it's a gift) must and can only come to us through being born from above of the Spirit of Christ, so we are found in Him spiritually, and through our faith in Him.

In our first birth, which was physical, we were born into Adam, whose spirit died when he sinned. Our second birth is from above, and is spiritual, and places us in the last Adam, the Son of God and Son of man who represents us before God. This is what it means to be "clothed in His righteousness".

Paul's reference to "righteousness" was not in the course of legalism. Righteousness simply means "right-standing". Although Paul was using Abraham as an example, if Romans 4 is read in context I do believe that the meaning of righteousness ie "right-standing" is characterized more by divine grace than sanctification through the law post-John The Baptist.
 
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Tolworth John

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once we decipher his words, believe in them

And as Jesus said, this is the work that God requires of you, to believe in the one he has sent.

It boils down to follow Jesus. It is not possible to get away from him in the Bible.
 
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BNR32FAN

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In Romans chapter 4 AMP, the apostle Paul writes in verse 2 "...if Abraham was justified [that is, acquitted from the guilt of his sins] by works [those things he did that were good], he has something to boast about..."

In verse 3 Paul expounds, emphasizing that Abram first "trusted" God's words in Gen. 15:5. God responds by--"crediting" him with "righteousness". My underlying assumption is that Paul acquiesces with Matthew 25:46 which clearly states that the "righteous" will come into "eternal life". Essentially, Abram believes God is capable of fulfilling his promise in Gen. 15:5, and God issues salvation to Abram.

Paul goes on in Romans 4 arguing that Abram couldn't have possibly earned righteousness. In the Romans 4 example, righteousness, and therefore eternal life is a gift offered to those that have faith in God's promises alone.

If Paul is correct here, then the only prerequisite to life eternal is to grow in ones ability to hear God and once we decipher his words, believe in them.

Is there anymore to salvation than this?

We must also abide/remain in Christ to receive salvation.
 
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BNR32FAN

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And as Jesus said, this is the work that God requires of you, to believe in the one he has sent.

It boils down to follow Jesus. It is not possible to get away from him in the Bible.

I think the implications in John 15:1-10 teach otherwise my friend particularly John 15:6.
 
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Lionel20

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And as Jesus said, this is the work that God requires of you, to believe in the one he has sent.

It boils down to follow Jesus. It is not possible to get away from him in the Bible.

The Gospels all describe Jesus as divine. In studying the Synoptics, the books seem diffident to say the least on whether Jesus YHWH. The book of John delivers a strong, near-indisputable message on Jesus being God:

John 1:1
John 1:14
John 1:18
John 5:18
John 8:22-23
John 8:57-58
John 10:30
John 10:33
John 13:18-19
John 17:21
John 20:27-28
 
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Zao is life

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Paul's reference to "righteousness" was not in the course of legalism. Righteousness simply means "right-standing". Although Paul was using Abraham as an example, if Romans 4 is read in context I do believe that the meaning of righteousness ie "right-standing" is characterized more by divine grace than sanctification through the law post-John The Baptist.
Yes that's what I meant by "the stamp of righteousness". Righteousness is nevertheless intimately associated with doing what is right in the sight of God. Our works do not produce such a stamp, but Christ's works do, and our faith in Him is credited to us for righteousness. It's the same with Job, Noah and anyone else who was righteous in God's sight. No doubt their works were more righteous than most others, but that's not the reason they were considered righteous or blameless - their works were a clear result of their faith in God.
 
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Lionel20

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Yes that's what I meant by "the stamp of righteousness". Righteousness is nevertheless intimately associated with doing what is right in the sight of God. Our works do not produce such a stamp, but Christ's works do, and our faith in Him is credited to us for righteousness. It's the same with Job, Noah and anyone else who was righteous in God's sight. No doubt their works were more righteous than most others, but that's not the reason they were considered righteous or blameless - their works were a clear result of their faith in God.

I wonder if you agree with the following,

Is it accurate to say that Biblically there are two sets of righteousness? One a standard for the Old Covenant and another for the New. The Old Covenant righteousness leading to a "waiting period"--in First Temple Pre-Babylonian 'Sheol'--until the righteous were "grandfathered" into the New Covenant. This would explain Jesus' reference to Abraham in John 8:56. Old Covenant righteousness is commonly thought of as synonymous with lawfulness--but as Jesus explains in the beginning of Matthew 12 in response to the Pharisees and honoring the "sabbath", righteousness wasn't established by lawfulness. Paul, as mentioned in the OP, uses an "uncircumcised" Abram to corroborate that righteousness--which essentially is salvation--is not established by law but by the trust in God's messages. The messages God gave under the Old Covenant are entirely different than the ones given following the emergence of John the Baptist (Matthew 11:12), and it's either a matter of God sovereignly deciding on an appointed time to reveal the New Covenant, the living conditions and thus behavior patterns of humanity were too barbaric and warlike to accept a revelation built on love and forgiveness, or both.
 
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Zao is life

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I wonder if you agree with the following,

Is it accurate to say that Biblically there are two sets of righteousness? One a standard for the Old Covenant and another for the New. The Old Covenant righteousness leading to a "waiting period"--in First Temple Pre-Babylonian 'Sheol'--until the righteous were "grandfathered" into the New Covenant. This would explain Jesus' reference to Abraham in John 8:56. Old Covenant righteousness is commonly thought of as synonymous with lawfulness--but as Jesus explains in the beginning of Matthew 12 in response to the Pharisees and honoring the "sabbath", righteousness wasn't established by lawfulness. Paul, as mentioned in the OP, uses an "uncircumcised" Abram to corroborate that righteousness--which essentially is salvation--is not established by law but by the trust in God's messages. The messages God gave under the Old Covenant are entirely different than the ones given following the emergence of John the Baptist (Matthew 11:12), and it's either a matter of God sovereignly deciding on an appointed time to reveal the New Covenant, the living conditions and thus behavior patterns of humanity were too barbaric and warlike to accept a revelation built on love and forgiveness, or both.
There is only one righteousness, imo. The law only came 430 years after Abraham, yet Abraham was given the stamp of righteousness through his faith in God and the Word of God. Like Noah, his works showed his faith. Noah built the ark. Abraham left Ur of the Chaldees and sojourned to the promised land. Noah believed God when God told him He was going to flood the earth. Abraham believed God when God told him Sarah, well-passed the age of child-bearing and who had been barren all her life, would bear a son to Abraham.

The Word of God is called Life and Light in John 1:4. In John 6:63 Jesus states that the words He speaks are Spirit and Life. The Word of God is symbolized as a river of life in the Revelation.

The original sin was unbelief in the Word of God. This is what caused the fall of Adam. The seed of the woman was promised to come in Genesis 3:15.

We could assume this means that Adam and Eve knew the promise, and passed the knowledge of the promise (of the seed who was to come) onto future generations, through the sons of Seth to Noah, and from Shem down to Abraham. But this is an assumption .

However, this does not detract from the fact that God's stamp of righteousness always only came through faith in God and the Word of God. The law was added later:

" Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator." (Galatians 3:19).

When Jesus died, He died once for all. Then He preached the gospel in hades.

I believe that Christ's atoning sacrifice transcends the past and the present and the future. If He died in say, 30 A.D, then how can He atone for anyone's sins in 1930 or 1980 or 2020? The same way He atoned for everyone who came before His day. The same way He atoned for Adam and Eve.

All that was needed was faith in God and in the Word of God. Those who believe God believe Him no matter whether they saw and believed (as did the apostles) or whether they did not see yet believed (as did the people who came before Christ's time and anyone who came after His earthly ministry).

All these are saved through faith in God and in His Word, and it needs re-birth from above by the Spirit of God to see and believe. For all we know (when we read the literal words of Jesus regarding being born from above by the Spirit), Abraham was born from above by the Spirit, so was king David, so was Moses, so was Noah, etc etc. Jesus did not say that no one can be born from above until He (Jesus) dies and rises again. He simply said that no one can see the Kingdom of heaven unless he is born from above by the Spirit of God. The notion that this experience came only after Christ died and rose again is a fallacy which is part of the Gentile false notion of "spiritual resurrection".
 
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Lionel20

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There is only one righteousness, imo. The law only came 430 years after Abraham, yet Abraham was given the stamp of righteousness through his faith in God and the Word of God. Like Noah, his works showed his faith. Noah built the ark. Abraham left Ur of the Chaldees and sojourned to the promised land. Noah believed God when God told him He was going to flood the earth. Abraham believed God when God told him Sarah, well-passed the age of child-bearing and who had been barren all her life, would bear a son to Abraham.

The Word of God is called Life and Light in John 1:4. In John 6:63 Jesus states that the words He speaks are Spirit and Life. The Word of God is symbolized as a river of life in the Revelation.

The original sin was unbelief in the Word of God. This is what caused the fall of Adam. The seed of the woman was promised to come in Genesis 3:15.

We could assume this means that Adam and Eve knew the promise, and passed the knowledge of the promise (of the seed who was to come) onto future generations, through the sons of Seth to Noah, and from Shem down to Abraham. But this is an assumption .

However, this does not detract from the fact that God's stamp of righteousness always only came through faith in God and the Word of God. The law was added later:

" Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator." (Galatians 3:19).

When Jesus died, He died once for all. Then He preached the gospel in hades.

I believe that Christ's atoning sacrifice transcends the past and the present and the future. If He died in say, 30 A.D, then how can He atone for anyone's sins in 1930 or 1980 or 2020? The same way He atoned for everyone who came before His day. The same way He atoned for Adam and Eve.

All that was needed was faith in God and in the Word of God. Those who believe God believe Him no matter whether they saw and believed (as did the apostles) or whether they did not see yet believed (as did the people who came before Christ's time and anyone who came after His earthly ministry).

All these are saved through faith in God and in His Word, and it needs re-birth from above by the Spirit of God to see and believe. For all we know (when we read the literal words of Jesus regarding being born from above by the Spirit), Abraham was born from above by the Spirit, so was king David, so was Moses, so was Noah, etc etc. Jesus did not say that no one can be born from above until He (Jesus) dies and rises again. He simply said that no one can see the Kingdom of heaven unless he is born from above by the Spirit of God. The notion that this experience came only after Christ died and rose again is a fallacy which is part of the Gentile false notion of "spiritual resurrection".

Generally speaking I agree with much of the above^

Abraham being counted as "righteous" before the law was established again highlights how righteousness transcends legalism.

But again, the Pentateuch itself self-proclaims the Mitzvot "commandments" to have came from God, and is confirmed throughout the Tanakh, for example, according to 2 Chronicles 34:14. The law consists of 613 commandments, including in Deut. 24:1-3 where G-d permits men-only the ability to file for divorce if they find something "objectionable" about their wife. Jesus would use his authority to condemn the Mitzvot in Matthew 19:3-12, claiming that this particular commandment was given because the ancient Hebrews were collectively obstinate in their ways (v. 8).

If a Hebrew man in 1300 B.C. filed for divorce because his wife of ten years became "overweight", it would seem that he's in "right-standing" according to the Old Covenant if he went through the proper channels. The other argument would be that a deed being in the 'scope of Divine permission' is not equivalent to it being a 'righteous act'. Under the new covenant, there seems to be no ambiguity that divorcing one's wife, except for sexual unfaithfulness, is permitted.

I, of course, would think to include domestic violence in the New Covenant instruction -- but I digress.
 
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Zao is life

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Generally speaking I agree with much of the above^

Abraham being counted as "righteous" before the law was established again highlights how righteousness transcends legalism.

But again, the Pentateuch itself self-proclaims the Mitzvot "commandments" to have came from God, and is confirm throughout the Tanakh, for example, according to 2 Chronicles 34:14. The law consists of 613 commandments, including in Deut. 24:1-3 where G-d permits men-only the ability to file for divorce if they find something "objectionable" about their wife. Jesus would use his authority to condemn the Mitzvot in Matthew 19:3-12, claiming that this particular commandment was given because the ancient Hebrews were collectively obstinate in their ways (v. 8).

If a Hebrew man in 1300 B.C. filed for divorce because his wife of ten years became "overweight", it would seem that he's in "right-standing" according to the Old Covenant if he went through the proper channels. The other argument would be that a deed being in the 'scope of Divine permission' is not equivalent to it being a 'righteous act'. Under the new covenant, there seems to be ambiguity that divorcing one's wife, except for sexual unfaithfulness, is permitted.

I, of course, would think to include domestic violence in the New Covenant instruction -- but I digress.
Well, I'll start with your point where you digress (because it's important today). Personally (my own opinion), I don't believe that Jesus would not permit a woman caught up in an abusive marriage to leave for her sake and her children's sake, if she could. Jesus was speaking to the men of His day who were using the Pharisees interpretation of the law to put their wives away whenever they felt like it. He simply meant what He said - He brought attention to God's intention and purpose for marriage in order to show how far the people who questioned Him were from God's will. Marriages where women are caught up in horrible and abusive situations are equally far from God's intention and purpose for marriage. Such marriages turn what is sacred and sacrosanct into something sacrilegious.

The Law itself was meant to be eternal - and would have been - if the party that promised to obey all that was in the law, remained faithful and obedient. That party was the "wife" in the covenant which was based on the Law.

But the covenant was broken because the Law was broken, and a New Covenant came through Christ's sacrifice for sin (which is also the transgression of the Law), and therefore the "letter of the Law" became obsolete with the New Covenant in Christ's blood.

Jesus stated that all of that law hangs on two commandments, and Paul gave a list of the ten commandments, saying that whoever loves his neighbor, fulfills the Law. That Law to love God and neighbor is written upon the heart of those who have faith in Christ, by the finger of God, and it covers all 613 laws which were written before it, because all the law and the prophets hang on only those two commandments.

But it's impossible to obey those two commandments without abiding (remaining in and living in) the vine, who is Christ.
 
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In Romans chapter 4 AMP, the apostle Paul writes in verse 2 "...if Abraham was justified [that is, acquitted from the guilt of his sins] by works ...

I have understood justified means in that that person is counted righteous, because he is loyal (faithful) to God. If person is loyal to God, it shows the person has wisdom of the just and can be counted righteous. It does not mean that the works save, works are only like fruits (result) that tell is the tree good or bad.
 
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