Deuteronomy 22 prescribes the death penalty for rapists, so it is by no means permissible.
Only if she is betrothed to another man. If she isn't, you have to marry her because her father otherwise won't be able to procure a dowry.
So the penalty for raping a bachelorette is that you must marry her. And you pay her father a fine. The compensation for the rape victim? A choice between marrying her rapist or else being an outcast.
Did you miss that part or did you not even read it?
Also...
If you like, consult
Numbers 31. Moses complains that the men did not have sex with virgin POWs and that, as a result, a "plague" has been set upon them. Translation: after butchering the fathers and sons of the village, the men contracted venereal diseases upon raping the young widows.
Incidentally, human sacrifice is probably depicted in verse 40. In any case, why did these slave girls have to be virgin? Why execute all POWs except virgin girls? What do you reckon the "plague" was? And if your husband and sons were killed right in front of you, and if a member of the assaulting army took you for sex, would that be rape?
In the ANE, someone who couldn't pay their debts had the option to beg, to starve, or to sell their future labor, and if they were able-bodied, then begging wasn't an option, so it was a choice between starvation and selling themselves into slavery. So slavery in the Bible was an economic advantage for people that allowed them to be sheltered while they paid off their debts much like indentured servitude.
A Hebrew man would be an indentured servant and would be set free on the 7th year.
Exodus 21:2-4 says,
2) “If thou buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing.”
3) “If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him.”
4) “If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself.”
Female slaves and foreigner slaves were slaves for life.
Verse 4 above covers my claim about female slaves. Also verses 7 and 8 say,
7) “And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do.”
8) “If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.”
Verse 8 lays out how Hebrew female slaves can be taken as sexual property, although it and a couple of the verses after spell out the conditions under which she could be set free. But those conditions are not up to her. So it is slavery for life for women.
For foreigners,
Leviticus 25:44-46 says,
44) “Both thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, which thou shalt have,
shall be of the heathen that are round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.”
45) “Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that
are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.”
46) “And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit
them fora possession; they shall be your bondmen for ever: but over your brethren the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigour.”
So this "indentured servitude" policy applied to Hebrew men only. Translation: sexist and racist guidelines on slavery.
Do you consider this to be timeless wisdom?