Sufficient for all ?

cygnusx1

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Here's a quote from a web page . I have been attempting to ascertain the point of a hypothetical redemption seeing as only those who believe will in fact receive . What do you make of the old formula ?

"Sufficient for all, efficient for the elect"


"Among those who generally accept the doctrine of a definite or limited atonement, it is often heard by way of explanation that "the atonement is sufficient for all, but efficient only for the elect." In fact this terminology may be found in some of the most respected Reformed theologians such John Calvin, John Owen, Charles Hodge, and others. While no Calvinist would deny the intrinsic sufficiency of Christ's death for the redemption of all men had God so designed and intended it, the casual use of such phraseology can be misleading.


William Cunningham (1805-1861) gives insight into potential misunderstanding of the Reformed position, which serves as a call for care in using the "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" terminology.


A distinction was generally employed by the schoolmen, which has often been adverted to in this discussion, and which it may be proper to explain. They were accustomed to say, that Christ died sufficiently for all men, and efficaciously for the elect—sufficientur pro omnibus, efficaciter pro electis. Some orthodox divines, who wrote before the extent of the atonement had been made the subject of full, formal, and elaborate discussion, and Calvin himself among the rest, admitted the truth of this scholastic position. But after controversy had thrown its full light upon the subject, orthodox divines generally refused to adopt this mode of stating the point, because it seemed to ascribe to Christ a purpose or intention of dying in the room of all, and of benefiting all by the proper effects of His death, as an atonement or propitiation; not that they doubted or denied the intrinsic sufficiency of His death for the redemption of all, but because the statement—whether originally so intended or not—was so expressed as to suggest the idea that Christ, in dying, desired and intended that all should partake in the proper and peculiar effects of the shedding of His blood. Calvinists do not object to say that the death of Christ—viewed objectively, apart from His purpose or design—was sufficient for all, and efficacious for the elect, because this statement in the first clause merely asserts its infinite intrinsic sufficiency, which they admit; whereas the original scholastic form of the statement, namely, that He died sufficiently for all, seems to indicate that when He died, He intended that all should derive some saving and permanent benefit from His death. {{#if:William Cunningham. Historical Theology, vol. 2, p. 332| – William Cunningham. Historical Theology, vol. 2, p. 332. "
 

twin1954

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The concept of sufficient for all but efficient for the elect is a hypothetical suger coat intended to appease those who can't swallow truth. It is misleading and borders on dishonesty.

No one can deny that there is infinte value in the person and work of Christ. What we deny is that the value is derived by the amount of people He died for.
 
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cygnusx1

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The concept of sufficient for all but efficient for the elect is a hypothetical suger coat intended to appease those who can't swallow truth. It is misleading and borders on dishonesty.

No one can deny that there is infinte value in the person and work of Christ. What we deny is that the value is derived by the amount of people He died for.

A whitewash hey ? Where on the scale from rank Arminian to extreme Hyper do you think you Fit ?

I am generally moderate to high Calvinist . Feeling pretty high lately ^_^
 
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twin1954

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A whitewash hey ? Where on the scale from rank Arminian to extreme Hyper do you think you Fit ?

I am generally moderate to high Calvinist . Feeling pretty high lately ^_^
High Calvinist. Many call me hyper but that doesn't stick.
 
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twin1954

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So how do you differentiate a hyper from a high ?
I was raised a hyper. A hyper belives and preaches that God has His elect scattered all over the world and they will be saved apart from the preaching of the Gospel. They teach election is salvation rather than unto salvation through faith is Christ by the preaching of the Gospel.
 
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cygnusx1

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I was raised a hyper. A hyper belives and preaches that God has His elect scattered all over the world and they will be saved apart from the preaching of the Gospel. They teach election is salvation rather than unto salvation through faith is Christ by the preaching of the Gospel.

Right ! And a high Calvinist is different because ?
 
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cygnusx1

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Because he doesn't believe and teach those things. My struggle was never with election it was with what is the preaching of the Gospel. The hypers call me an Arminian. :doh:

:D yeh Hypers tend to do that with anyone who 'steps outa line' must be a fear thing !
 
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JM

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Time for the Calvinism Chart: Calvinism Chart « Feileadh Mor

1. Hyper-Calvinism


Beliefs: God is the author of sin and man has no responsibility before God. The Gospel should only preached to the elect. i.e. duty faith. and anti-missionary Belief in the five points is a prerequisite for true salvation, also known as Neo-Gnostic Calvinism. Proponents: Joseph Hussey John Skepp and some English primitive Baptists.

2. Ultra High Calvinism


Beliefs: That the elect are in some sense eternally justified. A denial of: The Well– Meant Offer; Common Grace; and God having any love for the non-elect. Proponents: John Gill, some ministers in the Protestant Reformed Church of America


3. High Calvinism


Beliefs: That God in no sense desires to save the reprobate, Most deny the Well-Meant Offer. Supralapsarian viewing God’s decrees. All hold to limited atonement. Most believe in particular grace and see the atonement as sufficient only for the elect. Proponents: Theodore Beza, Gordon Clark, Arthur Pink

 
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bsd058

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The concept of sufficient for all but efficient for the elect is a hypothetical suger coat intended to appease those who can't swallow truth. It is misleading and borders on dishonesty.

No one can deny that there is infinte value in the person and work of Christ. What we deny is that the value is derived by the amount of people He died for.
I don't really see it as a sugar-coated theology. Rather it is simply stating that should God have wanted to impute more of man's sins to Christ (by choosing more to be elect than what He did), He could have. But he did not. He has his elect and only their sin was imputed to Christ.

It's often used to contrast Arminianism and Calvinism.

Since Arminians believe we limit the power of the cross, it is necessary to show that in fact they limit the power, we limit the intent.

The power of the cross is unlimited, so if God wanted everyone to be saved Jesus' death would have been sufficient for all sin (Jesus would not have had to endure more than what he already endured). But since only the elect benefit from the cross, it is effective only for them.
 
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cygnusx1

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I don't really see it as a sugar-coated theology. Rather it is simply stating that should God have wanted to impute more of man's sins to Christ (by choosing more to be elect than what He did), He could have. But he did not. He has his elect and only their sin was imputed to Christ.

It's often used to contrast Arminianism and Calvinism.

Since Arminians believe we limit the power of the cross, it is necessary to show that in fact they limit the power, we limit the intent.

The power of the cross is unlimited, so if God wanted everyone to be saved Jesus' death would have been sufficient for all sin (Jesus would not have had to endure more than what he already endured). But since only the elect benefit from the cross, it is effective only for them.


right ... this makes sense of the articles i posted , two meanings for sufficiency one of infinite worth and the other seems to advance a hypothetical redemption which is difficult to get my head around .

I will show you where I started to ask questions which led to this question ,

here's a very recent discussion ..

cygnusx1 said:
Now , upon what evidence is there that God wills the salvation of all men ?


Originally Posted by gmm4j
..., He does not will the salvation of all men, but has provided salvation for all men and wills the salvation of all who believe
cygnusx1 said:
Has God provided salvation for everyone even though He only plans it and wills it exclusively for believers ? What would be the point ? and the reality is many have never heard the Gospel , a fact that is all too often ignored . "

cygnusx1 said:
Why would God provide the salvation for all men without willing all men saved ?
Originally Posted by gmm4j
Because He wants men to willingly receive His provision.
cygnusx1 said:
"He does not will the salvation of all men just those who believe " now put that next to every scripture you spammed and you will find yourself a Calvinist !
Originally Posted by gmm4j

Because He wants men to willingly receive His provision.
cygnusx1 said:
Only believers ! Remember !!

cygnusx1 said:
Has God provided salvation for everyone even though He only plans it and wills it exclusively for believers ? What would be the point ?


Originally Posted by gmm4j
Ya. The point is that He loves men and provides sufficient provision for all to receive by faith.

Do you believe His provision was sufficient to save all? Will you answer, or dodge the question?


cygnusx1 said:
With one stipulation , if God had so willed it yes , but God didn't will it , so no.

The atonement is not merely provision it is an accomplished victory over sin death and Satan , these are defeated for the believer , for others these are not defeated , Jesus Himself said "unless you believe on me you will die in your sins" . The provision to be saved is Gods will for those who will believe , Christ laid down His life for the sheep not the goats , for His bride not the Amalekites .

1Sam.15

[1] Samuel also said unto Saul, The LORD sent me to anoint thee to be king over his people, over Israel: now therefore hearken thou unto the voice of the words of the LORD.
[2] Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt.

[3] Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ass.


[4] And Saul gathered the people together, and numbered them in Telaim, two hundred thousand footmen, and ten thousand men of Judah.
Originally Posted by gmm4j
Because He wants men to willingly receive His provision.



cygnusx1 said:
"Even though "he does not will the salvation of all men " he still wants all men to willingly receive His provision ? Why ?

Can you not discern the problem with your view here?
" cygnusx1
 
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bsd058

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right ... this makes sense of the articles i posted , two meanings for sufficiency one of infinite worth and the other seems to advance a hypothetical redemption which is difficult to get my head around .

I will show you where I started to ask questions which led to this question ,

here's a very recent discussion ..



[/b]


<b> [/b]







With one stipulation , if God had so willed it yes , but God didn't will it , so no.

The atonement is not merely provision it is an accomplished victory over sin death and Satan , these are defeated for the believer , for others these are not defeated , Jesus Himself said "unless you believe on me you will die in your sins" . The provision to be saved is Gods will for those who will believe , Christ laid down His life for the sheep not the goats , for His bride not the Amalekites .

1Sam.15

[1] Samuel also said unto Saul, The LORD sent me to anoint thee to be king over his people, over Israel: now therefore hearken thou unto the voice of the words of the LORD.
[2] Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt.

[3] Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ass.


[4] And Saul gathered the people together, and numbered them in Telaim, two hundred thousand footmen, and ten thousand men of Judah.






"Even though "he does not will the salvation of all men " he still wants all men to willingly receive His provision ? Why ?

Can you not discern the problem with your view here?
" cygnusx1
Ya, I would agree that God provided something that was sufficient for the salvation of all men. However, the other person is trying to assert that it God's purpose was for all men to be provided salvation for. Though, I would contend that He would have achieved His purpose, if that was His purpose.

God never fails.

Is 55:10-11
As the rain and the snow
come down from heaven,
and do not return to it
without watering the earth
and making it bud and flourish,
so that it yields seed for the sower and bread for the eater,
so is my word that goes out from my mouth:
It will not return to me empty,
but will accomplish what I desire
and achieve the purpose for which I sent it.
 
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JM

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what about the sufficiency argument used by dozens of Calvinists JM ?

I think twin is right. Its an attempt to find middle ground between Arminianism and consistent Calvinism. I don't need to borrow from Arminianism to proclaim the Gospel freely, it doesn't have to be sufficient for all for me to say, 'believe!' Only Hyper Calvinists deny the free proclamation (not a free offer) of the Gospel.

What about the limited atonement argument used by dozens of Calvinists cyg?

jm
 
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cygnusx1

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Ya, I would agree that God provided something that was sufficient for the salvation of all men. However, the other person is trying to assert that it God's purpose was for all men to be provided salvation for. Though, I would contend that He would have achieved His purpose, if that was His purpose.

God never fails.

Is 55:10-11
As the rain and the snow
come down from heaven,
and do not return to it
without watering the earth
and making it bud and flourish,
so that it yields seed for the sower and bread for the eater,
so is my word that goes out from my mouth:
It will not return to me empty,
but will accomplish what I desire
and achieve the purpose for which I sent it.

a bit of background , we are loosely dealing with a coversation between myself a Calvinist and a 4 point Arminian (I think) the thing is as time goes by you get to notice a very gradual shift in the way people put things , he actually started answering me like I would have answered , I was developing another strategy and seeing where it would lead , he suprised me with his confession that

" He does not will the salvation of all men, but has provided salvation for all men and wills the salvation of all who believe"

so much so I placed it in my autograph !

the net result is hearing him rationalise has pushed me into thinking like a high Calvinist (not sure where I will end up) because dare I say it , I now see certain flaws in 'moderate Calvinism' ..... this is an ongoing study so interaction is a help , thanks !
 
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cygnusx1

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I think twin is right. Its an attempt to find middle ground between Arminianism and consistent Calvinism. I don't need to borrow from Arminianism to proclaim the Gospel freely, it doesn't have to be sufficient for all for me to say, 'believe!' Only Hyper Calvinists deny the free proclamation (not a free offer) of the Gospel.

What about the limited atonement argument used by dozens of Calvinists cyg?

jm

I accept limited atonement JM , have done for many years , what is the problem is moderate Calvinism seems flawed , if God wills the salvation of only the elect (lets just stick with Gods will of decree for now , otherwise I will be tapping away till the end) then why provide a sufficiency in the limited atonement for everyone ?
 
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cygnusx1

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" He does not will the salvation of all men, but has provided salvation for all men and wills the salvation of all who believe" gmm4j

considering this guy is not even a Calvinist his view is almost word for word the Moderate Calvinist position , amazing how God controls the thoughts of men .
 
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