- Mar 28, 2005
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I have a question. If Paul's instruction to the Corinthian church that women should keep silent in church and ask their husbands at home was to be applied to the Christian churches in general, and not specifically to the Corinthians, then why did he support Philip's four daughters prophesying in church? And if he outlawed women having leadership role in a church, why didn't he tell Lydia (Acts 16:40) that if she continue running a church in her home, she was being false and contravening Scripture? And if he didn't agree with women teaching men, why did he support Priscilla teaching Apollos the true gospel of Christ?
Was Paul two-faced, where he prohibited women speaking in one church and allowed it in others? Or was their a specific reason that he gave that instruction to the Corinthians because of something that was specific to them? Or, did he actually write that verse, because it seems out of the context of the passage, or what is some scribe who added it later on. We can't know, because we don't have the original that Paul actually wrote. We have a copy that was made 300 years later.
And if Paul instructed Timothy that a woman should not teach or usurp authority over men, then what about a woman teaching other women? There seems to be no prohibition on that. And having a woman pastor or elder, does that role necessarily involved usurping authority over the male elders of the church? In my Presbyterian church a woman elder has just one vote alongside the majority votes of the male elders. And we had a woman minister for a while, and she has just one vote on the board of elders as well, and she conducted her ministry and preaching with the full support and permission of the male ruling elders of the church. So she was usurping no one's authority at all.
But there are churches where the Pastor or Minister is the sole authority, and the elders are there just to rubber stamp his decisions. I don't think that is good church government and raises a number of serious problems in terms of money management and unmoderated teaching which opens the way for falsehood. So if a woman is holding that pastoral role where she is at the top of the authority pyramid, then Paul would be quite right in opposing her in that role.
Was Paul two-faced, where he prohibited women speaking in one church and allowed it in others? Or was their a specific reason that he gave that instruction to the Corinthians because of something that was specific to them? Or, did he actually write that verse, because it seems out of the context of the passage, or what is some scribe who added it later on. We can't know, because we don't have the original that Paul actually wrote. We have a copy that was made 300 years later.
And if Paul instructed Timothy that a woman should not teach or usurp authority over men, then what about a woman teaching other women? There seems to be no prohibition on that. And having a woman pastor or elder, does that role necessarily involved usurping authority over the male elders of the church? In my Presbyterian church a woman elder has just one vote alongside the majority votes of the male elders. And we had a woman minister for a while, and she has just one vote on the board of elders as well, and she conducted her ministry and preaching with the full support and permission of the male ruling elders of the church. So she was usurping no one's authority at all.
But there are churches where the Pastor or Minister is the sole authority, and the elders are there just to rubber stamp his decisions. I don't think that is good church government and raises a number of serious problems in terms of money management and unmoderated teaching which opens the way for falsehood. So if a woman is holding that pastoral role where she is at the top of the authority pyramid, then Paul would be quite right in opposing her in that role.