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Rules for Bible interpreting...

Discussion in 'Non-denominational' started by rkbo, Jan 17, 2002.

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  1. Christsoldier

    Christsoldier So, I'm an apologetic!

    143
    +0
    >>He accepted the Old Testament Jewish canon, but rejected the Apocrypha. Luke 24:44<<

    I can understand Christ's accepting the Ot, but it was my understanding the Apocrypha's books hadn't been written yet. Yes or no?

    Being confused here. Help appreciated.
     
  2. Navigator

    Navigator Pizzagator...

    337
    +1
    Protestant
    the answer is a resounding 'it depends'... :)

    Aprocryphal writings occurred before and after the life of Christ.

    In Protestant terms the Apocrypha are the books from the intertestamental period. These are also referred to as the Deutero-Canonical books of the Roman Catholic Scriptures.

    The RC canon has an additional seven books that usually are no longer held as canonical by Protestant churches.

    The KJV was originally translated with these Apocryphal books included.

    Putting that aside, the Protestant and Catholic churches agree on the 27 books of the NT, with no disagreement. (although some say Luther wanted to rid the NT of some books, the same 27 books are still a part of both canons)...

    Thoroughly confused yet?
     
  3. edjones

    edjones Active Member

    699
    +0
    Many critics of the perfect Bible like to point out that the original King James had the Apocrypha in it as though that fact compromises its integrity. But several things must be examined to get the factual picture.

    First, in the days in which our Bible was translated, the Apocrypha was accepted reading based on its historical value, though not accepted as Scripture by anyone outside of' the Catholic church. The King James translators therefore placed it between the Old and New Testaments for its historical benefit to its readers. They did not integrate it into the Old Testament text as do the corrupt Alexandrian manuscripts.



    That they rejected the Apocrypha as divine is very obvious by the seven reasons which they gave for not incorporating it into the text. They are as follows:

    1. Not one of them is in the Hebrew language, which was alone used by the inspired historians and poets of the Old Testament.

    2. Not one of the writers lays any claim to inspiration.

    3. These books were never acknowledged as sacred Scriptures by the Jewish Church, and therefore were never sanctioned by our Lord.

    4. They were not allowed a place among the sacred books, during the first four centuries of the Christian Church.

    5. They contain fabulous statements, and statements which contradict not only the canonical Scriptures, but themselves; as when, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die three different deaths in as many different places.

    6. It inculcates doctrines at variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection.

    7. It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assassination and magical incantation.


    If having the Apocrypha between the Testaments disqualifies it as authoritative, then the corrupt Vaticanus and Sinaiticus manuscripts from Alexandria, Egypt must be totally worthless since their authors obviously didn't have the conviction of the King James translators and incorporated its books into the text of the Old Testament thus giving it authority with Scripture.
     
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