Rule # 4 for the RM Forum

- DRA -

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You have no Free will about your final destiny with God, you will end up where he wants you....in his presence.

Nobody wants to leave his presence.....

Lots of people go to Church and do this that or the other, thinking they have to do this that or the other to attain...maintain...not lose their right standing with God.

They will never please God doing these things.... when they stop doing these things.....because they have become aware....then they have become aware by the will of God....who is drawing them in closer.
It is not a choice we make.....if it where up to us we would not even know there was a God.

Peace

If there is NO free will, then please explain how we can be accountable. After all, if God programmed us to be sinners and lost, then wouldn't God ultimately be responsible. After all, He "made us" that way, so why wouldn't He be accountable?

Joshua 24:14-28. Choice. Beautiful text. Free will. God let the Israelites choose. However, it was necessary for them to make the right choices - assuming they wanted God's approval and blessings.
 
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Loveaboveall

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DRA, what happens when a person is baptized-- not for membership into a church--, but for the remission of sins and this is not done in a restoration movement church? Are they not saved? Are they not part of God's church?

Could it be possible that the church is not made up of congregations that call themselves "Church of Christ" but is made up of people of all "denominations" who are completely devoted and live according to the truth they understand?

What makes you think Cornelius and his bretheren were not in a saved condition? If they had died before hearing the "whole" truth would God have not saved them? How presumptuous to think you know what God would do! Cornelius and his fellows were upright men who BELIEVED in and had faith in God. This is proven when they were shown greater light they accepted it whole heartedly! They were men of God and there is no reason to even think that they were not living as God would have them to with the light that they did have.

To insinuate that only those who have been baptized in/by a person from a "church of Christ" church is in essence making the "Church of Christ" into another elitetist denomination that is no better than the Catholic Church!
 
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Splayd

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Does your "I consider" have a scriptural basis, or is it just your opinion? :)
You keep suggesting that it's wrong to express opinions. Truth is - that's all you're doing too. Every time you throw out a verse and express with certainty that it definitely means x,y,z all you are really doing is demonstrating your opinion of what that verse means and how it is to be applied.

The difference - I try to acknowledge that it's my understanding of scripture. I accept that the scriptures are necessarily correct BUT also that my understanding/interpretation of them might not be. You can't seem to recognise that distinction and subsequently present your own understanding as if it is God's.

We can keep throwing verse back and forth and I'm sure we'll always agree with the verse, but that doesn't mean we'll always agree about what it means and how it's to be applied. Given that your understanding is necessaily what God actually meant, perhaps you should write the official commentary for the rest of us.
 
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- DRA -

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DRA, what happens when a person is baptized-- not for membership into a church--, but for the remission of sins and this is not done in a restoration movement church? Are they not saved? Are they not part of God's church?

According to Acts 2:37-38, faith in Christ that prompts one to repent and be baptized results in the remission of sins, right? Now, drop down to verse 47. When they are saved, the Lord adds that person to His church (the one that He promised to build in Matthew 16:18) - the called out of God. Where was the Catholic church when this occurred? Where were the denominational churches? They came about later. They were not the "one body" or church the Lord established in the first century.

My understanding of 1 Corinthians 12:14-27 is that the church is made up of individual Christians - NOT CHURCHES. Do you find any references to "churches" in that text?

Could it be possible that the church is not made up of congregations that call themselves "Church of Christ" but is made up of people of all "denominations" who are completely devoted and live according to the truth they understand?

Let's see ...

The word "denomination" is from the mathematical term for the bottom number in a fraction. Like a fraction is part of the whole, denominationalism is built upon division, each claiming to be a part of the whole (church). Is this what we find characteristic of God's church in Eph. 4:1-6? If there was ever a basis for division, the context of God joining Jews and Gentiles into one church as is being discussing starting in Eph. chapter 2, then this would have been the place for it. Is division justified? Nope, this text promotes unity. Oneness. This is totally contrary to the very basis denominationalism is built upon.

So, to answer your question, the answer is, "NO!" Consider Jesus response to those who were convinced they were saved and serving Him in Matthew 7:21-23. Does He say "Yes," or "No?"

What makes you think Cornelius and his bretheren were not in a saved condition? If they had died before hearing the "whole" truth would God have not saved them?

Uh ... are these trick questions? Why was Jesus preached to the Jews in Acts 2? Wasn't it so they could believe in Him and receive the remission of sins? Cornelius and his household were the first Gentiles to have the gospel of Christ preached to them. Why? So, they could believe in Him and receive the remission of sins, right (i.e. Acts 10:43). After all, you can't believe in a message that you haven't heard, right (i.e. Romans 10:14)? And, you can't please God without faith/belief, right (i.e. Hebrews 11:6)? The point? The process works by hearing the gospel, believing in Jesus, and then receiving the remission of sins. You would have us believe that the remission of sins comes first, then at some later point a person hears about Jesus and believes in Him. Sorry, but that simply won't work.

How presumptuous to think you know what God would do! Cornelius and his fellows were upright men who BELIEVED in and had faith in God. This is proven when they were shown greater light they accepted it whole heartedly! They were men of God and there is no reason to even think that they were not living as God would have them to with the light that they did have.

Gotcha ... a person can be saved by good works according to Eph. 2:8-9, right? :eek:

To insinuate that only those who have been baptized in/by a person from a "church of Christ" church is in essence making the "Church of Christ" into another elitetist denomination that is no better than the Catholic Church!

My! My! There's no sense getting nasty. No one said anyone had to be "baptized in/by a person from the a church of Christ." If so, provide the proof.

Frankly, I don't know of any denomination teaching the necessity of baptism "for the remission of sins" per Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, Romans 6:3-11, and 1 Peter 3:21, do you? Therefore, we have folks who think they are saved, but haven't fully done the Father's will (i.e. Matthew 7:21). In light of this, will Jesus respond, "Welcome. I indeed recognize your sincerity and your faith?" Or, does He reply, "I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness?" Which response does Jesus give in Matthew 7:23?

Speaking of an "elitetist" church, I encourage you to consider the one body (church), one Spirit, one hope, one Lord, one faith, one baptism, and one God and Father in Eph. 4:4-6. Or, we can pretend as if the word "many" appears in the text instead of the word "one," right? Is that how we obtain truth?
 
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- DRA -

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1) "We are not the only Christians" acknowledges that there are Christians that don't attend RM churches as Hey Homie said. I certainly believe that there are Christians that attend Baptist, Methodist, Brethren, Non-denominational etc.. etc... congregations.

Response by - DRA -

If your "I certainly believe" is the type of faith mentioned in Romans 10:17, then there is a scriptural basis for your "belief." Where is this scriptural basis?

You keep suggesting that it's wrong to express opinions. Truth is - that's all you're doing too. Every time you throw out a verse and express with certainty that it definitely means x,y,z all you are really doing is demonstrating your opinion of what that verse means and how it is to be applied.

The difference - I try to acknowledge that it's my understanding of scripture. I accept that the scriptures are necessarily correct BUT also that my understanding/interpretation of them might not be. You can't seem to recognise that distinction and subsequently present your own understanding as if it is God's.

We can keep throwing verse back and forth and I'm sure we'll always agree with the verse, but that doesn't mean we'll always agree about what it means and how it's to be applied. Given that your understanding is necessaily what God actually meant, perhaps you should write the official commentary for the rest of us.

Actually, the issue at hand is this statement you made: "
I certainly believe that there are Christians that attend Baptist, Methodist, Brethren, Non-denominational etc.. etc... congregations."

Once again, my response was, "If your "I certainly believe" is the type of faith mentioned in Romans 10:17, then there is a scriptural basis for your "belief." Where is this scriptural basis?

Obviously, you gave no scriptural basis for your so-called "belief," which excludes your "belief" from the type based upon God's word in Romans 10:17. Perhaps your type of belief could better be described as wishful thinking.

Not sure where you are coming from with this statement:
"The difference - I try to acknowledge that it's my understanding of scripture." Which Scripture are you referring to? Hopefully, it's the one that supports your statement under consideration.
You see, anyone can say "I believe this," or, "I believe that." So what? The real issue is whether or not there is a sound scriptural basis for it. Like it or not, I have posted Scriptures to support what I believe and why I believe it. If my understanding of any particular passage(s) is wrong, then by all means it should be brought to my attention. There's nothing wrong with questioning what I believe about a passage or text. But, at least, I am willing to share the scriptural basis for what I believe and why I think it should be considered.

Honestly, I think both of us know why you didn't post your scriptural support for your statement under question in the red-bolded font. It explains why you're resorting to the red herrings. :)
 
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Splayd

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Honestly, I think both of us know why you didn't post your scriptural support for your statement under question in the red-bolded font. It explains why you're resorting to the red herrings. :)
:sigh: Must you consistently resort to snide comments and innuendo. As for your accusations of red herrings, your responses are littered with them. I'm at work right now so I can't go into depth with this response. I'll come back to it when I have time.
 
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Splayd

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Alright - I'm back.

To be blunt - I'm not even sure where to begin with this whole issue. Let me start by agreeing that there is only one church. I also concur that the church is made up of individuals and not churches.

So then - are our differences based around an understanding of who those individuals are? Do I need to establish from scripture who is a christian? I imagine we'd basically agree on what scripture says about that anyway.

See - from my perspective, it seems that you've added additional requirements that aren't in scripture. ie: those individuals must also meet in the right building with the right sign out the front and they must also have a 100% perfect understanding of all doctrine and practice.

If I'm understanding your perspective correctly, then the onus is on you to provide scriptural support, because I simply can't see it in scripture. If I'm not understanding you though, then please explain your position better so I can address it from scripture.

Peace
 
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- DRA -

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Alright - I'm back.

To be blunt - I'm not even sure where to begin with this whole issue. Let me start by agreeing that there is only one church. I also concur that the church is made up of individuals and not churches.

Okay, as a reminder, here is the issue at hand:

Originally Posted by Splayd

1) "We are not the only Christians" acknowledges that there are Christians that don't attend RM churches as Hey Homie said. I certainly believe that there are Christians that attend Baptist, Methodist, Brethren, Non-denominational etc.. etc... congregations.


Good. We agree there is one body or church per Eph. 4:4, and we agree the church is made up of individual Christians and not churches per 1 Corinthians 12. Great. We have established some common ground that is scripturally based.

So then - are our differences based around an understanding of who those individuals are? Do I need to establish from scripture who is a christian? I imagine we'd basically agree on what scripture says about that anyway.

Let's not assume we "basically agree" about what it takes to become a Christian. Let's go to our Bibles and see. In Acts 2:37-38, I see that faith (implied by the Jew's response in verse 37), repentance, and baptism were required to have sins taken away (i.e. become a disciple of our Lord - a Christian). Is that what you see in those verses? And, in the conversion of the eunuch in Acts 8:35-39, I see faith, confession, and baptism being involved in the conversion. Agree, or not? Therefore, by harmoning the texts (accepting both texts and other passages e.g. John 3:16; Luke 13:3,5; Matthew 10:32-33; Mark 16:16; Romans 6:3-11, Romans 10:9-10; and Acts 17:30), I understand that faith in Jesus, repentance, confession, and baptism are required for one to initially have their sins taken away and become a Christian. Are we in agreement? If we aren't in agreement, then we need to open our Bibles together and figure out it takes to become a Christian.

Because I will be away from the Forum for 2-3 weeks, I am going to assume we agree on what it takes to have one's sins removed - which makes us a Christian by submitting to the Lord and becoming His disciple.

See - from my perspective, it seems that you've added additional requirements that aren't in scripture. ie: those individuals must also meet in the right building with the right sign out the front and they must also have a 100% perfect understanding of all doctrine and practice.

Whooa. Back up. Still assuming we agree on what it takes to become a Christian (i.e. faith, repentance, confession, and baptism), do you know any "Baptist, Methodists, Brethren, Non-denominational etc.. etc... congregations" that are teaching and practicing these requirements for salvation under the gospel of Christ? I am not aware of any that are. Not a single one. I'm not trying to be mean or ugly. They just simply aren't teaching and requiring these things. In short, their teachings about salvation fall short of what the N.T. teaches is necessary for salvation under the gospel of Christ. They think they are saved and serving the Lord, but are not (i.e. Matt. 7:21-23). Therefore, my responsibility as a disciple of our Lord is to try to help them realize their spiritual condition and to impress the need to simply do what God requires for salvation - nothing more - nothing less.

One point you may want to consider is the "one baptism" in Ephesians 4:5. In Acts 19:5, we see the "one baptism" the Ephesians submitted to (NOTE: Yes, they previously had been baptized with John's baptism, but that was no longer applicable. Therefore, they were baptized "in the name of the Lord," which is in water per Acts 10:47-48). The "one baptism" is in the name of the Lord and is "for the remission of sins" in Acts 2:38 (or, to wash sins away per Acts 22:16). To baptize for any other reason is not the "one baptism" that unifies believers. What baptism do the Baptists, Methodists, etc. teach and practice? Is it the "one baptism" that unifies us as God's people? It's not. Simple as that. It's not the same at all. Many denominationalists I know view baptism in water as an optional thing that occurs after salvation. That's not the "one baptism" that unites God's people. Other denominationalists claim a spiritual baptism that occurs at the point of belief, which results in their salvation. That is not the "one baptism" that unites God's people.

Now, back to your points about the "right sign" in front of the church building and requiring a "100% perfect understanding of all doctrine and practice." As for the "right sign," I want to remind you that we agreed there there is "one body" or church per Ephesians 4:3. Going back to the example of the Jews in Acts 2, the 3,000 and others that obeyed the Lord (i.e. verse 41) were saved and added to the church by the Lord. Which church was that? Was it the Baptist or Methodist Church? Nope, they didn't come about until hundreds of years later. There was only "one body or church" to be added to in the first century. It was the church Jesus promised to build, and then built - purchasing it with His own blood (Acts 20:28). Later, apostasy arose and Christians fell away from the Lord and established the Catholic Church (i.e. 1 Timothy 4:1-3). Years later, folks rebelled against Catholicism and formed Reformation or Protestant Churches to protest against Catholicism in some way. The Baptists, for instance, believed in baptism by immersion versus sprinkling. The Methodists believed in a strict method of living versus the lifestyle many Catholics were living. Today, I also believe in baptism by immersion and a strict method of living. However, I am neither a Baptist nor a Methodist. Rather, I am a Christian who believes and practices what the New Testament teaches under the gospel of Christ. Thinking back to the New Testament church, it was not built upon in protest of another church, but focused on the Lord and His leadership over His people. The church spread from Jerusalem when disciples left there and went to other areas. In brief, they took the word of God with them and taught other people who obeyed it. As a result, churches arose in different cities. But, they were unified. They believed the same things (i.e. Eph. 4:3-6). They taught the same things. They all became Christians in the same way. We have the same word today they had back then. Therefore, we can take the same word and be unified today just as they were in the first-century.

As for the sign on the church building, do you really think any of the first-century churches bore signs that reflected their protest of a particular practice of the Catholic Church? That particular church did not officially come about until a few hundred years later. So, from a practical perspective, it wouldn't make sense. And, from a scriptural perspective, we know there were no Baptist, Methodist, etc., churches. However, we do find the "one church" did have different Scriptural designations e.g. the church of God in Acts 20:28, churches of Christ in Romans 16:16, and simply "the church" in numerous places. Is there a problem doing things by the Lord's authority (Col. 3:17)?

Now, for that 100% perfect understanding concern, note the sequence of events in Matthew 28:19-20. First, sinners are taught the gospel and become converted to the Lord. Then, additional teaching occurs that strengthens thems for continuing service to the Lord. Now, let's go back to the first part of the process. Suppose someone is taught of salvation through Jesus, but told they only need to belief in Him to be saved. So, they believe in Jesus in their heart and feel they are saved. Are they truly saved? You know, this scenario isn't far-fetched. Basically, this is the denominational teaching for salvation. Therefore, the issue really isn't exactly as you describe it. Let's not confuse the initial obedience to the Lord (e.g. Acts 2:38) with growth and develop that comes later as a result of additional study (e.g. Acts 2:42).

If I'm understanding your perspective correctly, then the onus is on you to provide scriptural support, because I simply can't see it in scripture. If I'm not understanding you though, then please explain your position better so I can address it from scripture.

Peace

Hopefully, now you have a better perspective of how I view these things. Let me add an additional thought ...

Consider the command given in Acts 2:38. Three thousand responded favorably in verse 41. What about those who didn't obey? Did they receive the blessings promised in verse 38, also? What if they didn't obey, but wanted to claim the blessings anyway? Would they have been among those who were saved and added to the Lord's church in verse 47, or would they fall into the category of folks in Matthew 7:21-23? I'll give you some time to think about these things. After careful thought and study, if you still believe the disobedient also receive the blessings promised, then I believe the burden of proof is yours to scripturally show how this is true. In essence, this is what the denominational folks are doing. They want the blessings, but don't submit to the requirements of God.

As I stated earlier, I'll be away for 2-3 weeks. Lord willing, and with your consent, we can resume our study then.
 
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Loveaboveall

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DRA,

Do you believe that Martin Luther died unsaved because He did not believe all the "truth" that has been "recovered" since his death? What about the Martyr's who died from 300AD-1800AD, who probably did not believe the whole "truth" as compromise had crept into the teachings of christians by this time? Are they not going to be saved because they did not have 100% true doctrine? They died for their beliefs, thinking that they would rather die then compromise and dishonor God, what if they did not have the full knowledge of baptism, would this prevent God from saving them?

I assume that you do not believe there was a "church" during the dark ages, is this correct? Did God not always have a faithful group of believers who worked against the anti-christ Catholic Church teachings? Would you not consider these to be part of God's people? Did they have the whole truth? Quite possibly, some did in remote areas, but it was not widespread and it was hidden from the world. Are those who lived according to faith in God during the dark ages not saved, even though many had only the priests to teach them doctrine for they could not read or write? Are they held accountable for anothers deception? Could it be that faith in God and what they knew of Jesus is enough, if they believed with their whole heart?

DRA, could it be possible that the "Church of Christ" of today does not have 100% true doctrine? Do you think Martin Luther thought he was holding to false doctrine? Could it be that 300 yrs from now people will look back at us and decide that we are not saved because we did not hold to "true" doctrine that new light will have been shed on then? Pretty scary thought isn't it?

What if you are not following 100% true doctrine, even though you think you are, is it enough for God?
 
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Loveaboveall

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One other thing...

What makes you believe that the Ephesians were not saved before there baptism in the name of Jesus? For the baptism of John IS for the remission of sins.

Luke refers to them as "disciples" BEFORE they recieved the baptism of Jesus!? Were they not saved before this new baptism?
 
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AJB4

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This is a topic that still interests me. It used to be a big issue for me. I'm not really intimidated by the concept of a "one church" anymore, but my burning question now is: Is the Restoration Movement Church of Christ really it?

Members of the Church of Christ generally believe in the "Great Apostasy", as most members of "restored" churches do (Mormons, Jehovah's Witnesses, Seventh-Day Adventists etc.), but, is this concept even biblical? Matthew 16:18 would suggest otherwise. The church would have been there throughout the ages, and probably visible too. Jesus promised it. Sure, the scriptures predicted a "falling away", and there was, early on (Gnostics etc.) but the concept of a complete falling away, where the church could no longer be found, is contradictory to Matthew 16:18.

So why do I doubt that the Restoration Movement Church of Christ
is it? Because, many of their core teachings did not exist prior to the Reformation and were not a part of the early Christian church. The purpose of this thread is not to discuss the issue of Real Presence in the Lord's Supper, but The RM fervently believes in Memorialism only (thanking God for the representation of his body and blood only), and this is a view only found post-Reformation and was largely based on work by 15th-16th century humanist theologian Huldrych Zwingli, a Reformed theologian (this is just one example).

There was only one visible church for the first few hundred years of Christianity, and this was the Catholic church (which later split and became the Roman Catholic church and the Eastern Orthodox church). The reasons above are the reasons that I'm looking into these two churches (in particular the Eastern Orthodox church).

Never should anyone doubt the sincerity of Campbell and Stone (and other RM champions), but in order to restore the church, they had to believe things that the early church did. It seems kind of obvious that they bought a lot of post-Reformation Protestant ideas into the RM Church, of which none of the early church fathers or early Christians in general believed. History contradicts the Church of Christ, which is why I'm not sure if I'll with a clear conscience be able to stay in it forever and accept it as the "true church".

Of course, if you're of the mind that there isn't a "one true church" than it's mostly just about whether the RM fits your opinion or not.
 
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Splayd

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Let's not assume we "basically agree" about what it takes to become a Christian...(snip)... I understand that faith in Jesus, repentance, confession, and baptism are required for one to initially have their sins taken away and become a Christian.
Well, what do you know? It was a fair assumption after all. I knew it would be. We do “basically” agree. I know you well enough by now to know that you'll respond with scripture and I absolutely agree with scripture.


Our disagreements are seldom about what the scripture says, which is why I don't quote it much in discussions with you. The disagreements tend to stem from our understanding and application of those verses. ie: We each tend to consider the other speaks where scripture doesn't in that regard.

Whooa. Back up. Still assuming we agree on what it takes to become a Christian (i.e. faith, repentance, confession, and baptism), do you know any "Baptist, Methodists, Brethren, Non-denominational etc.. etc... congregations" that are teaching and practicing these requirements for salvation under the gospel of Christ? I am not aware of any that are. Not a single one.
So??? Don’t get me wrong though. I believe doctrine is important. I agree there are some poor teachings out there and I agree we should be correcting them… BUT the church isn’t made up of the denominations. It’s made up of the individuals. Now - this is where I see the inconsistencies start to creep into your thinking. One minute you're saying the church is made up of individuals and the next you're judging them in batches. As I understand your position (thus far into the post), you've already added a few conditions to salvation that aren't amongst those you provided scripture for. Namely, that one must correctly understand salvational doctrines to be saved and that one's salvation is contingent upon them only being exposed to correct doctrine and that we are necessarily judged according to the beliefs of those around us.


For someone who’s so ready to insist on scriptural references for everything, I can’t see how you can hold those views, given that none of them were amongst the requirements you listed earlier. Perhaps you could clarify the positions a little more.

Correct understanding of salvation: Given that you’ve otherwise acknowledged that our understanding continues to grow, could you elaborate from scripture where the line is that determines our understanding is sufficient for salvation? If our understanding is still developing, does that mean we still aren’t saved? Should we get baptised again every time we gain a better understanding just in case our understanding was insufficient the last time we got baptised?

Exposure to correct teaching: Is it possible for someone attending a denominational congregation to be guided into truth by the Holy Spirit, through their study of scripture? OR are they insufficient for the task and RM preachers are the only one’s who can adequately teach them? What if they keep attending that church while that understanding grows? Is their salvation denied until such time that they cease to be exposed to the bad teaching? What if an RM preacher has a bad run and throws out a few dodgy sermons? Do the congregation cease to be Christians until such time as they replace the preacher? Was there a Christian church for the 1500 years or so between Nicaea and the RM? Where did the first christians after that come from and how were they possibly saved, given that they came from denominations?

Guilty by association: If correct understanding is necessary AND an individual has it BUT is attending a denominational church, is their salvation null and void? What if there’s no other churches in their area? What if the teacher of that denominational church is also teaching correct doctrine? What if the whole congregation have correct understanding and teaching but for the fact that they continue to assemble in a building with a “Baptist” sign out the front? What if half of your RM church have bad understanding and teaching? Are you still considered a christian in God’s eyes? Is there a clear point where the cut-off occurs? Eg: More than 30% in your congregation have it wrong, so you’re counted among them?

More to follow…
 
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Splayd

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One point you may want to consider is the "one baptism" in Ephesians 4:5….(snip)… What baptism do the Baptists, Methodists, etc. teach and practice? Is it the "one baptism" that unifies us as God's people? It's not. Simple as that. It's not the same at all.
Is it possible that any of the individuals amongst them could get baptised for the right reason? Does that even matter or does the person baptising them have to also have been baptised for the right reason? If that’s true AND there were no Christians for 1500 years or so… who baptised the first of the new batch of Christians and how? What if I thought I understood it when I got baptised, but have since learned more and recognise some error in my understanding at the time? Does the first one count? How much error is acceptable? Hey, what if the guy who baptised me wasn’t really a christian and I never found out? Again I’ll go back to my question about understanding: What if our understanding of baptism continues to develop? Should we get baptised again and again and again? Isn’t that contrary to the notion of one baptism?


Now, back to your points about the "right sign" in front of the church building and requiring a "100% perfect understanding of all doctrine and practice." As for the "right sign," I want to remind you that we agreed there there is "one body" or church per Ephesians 4:3.
Absolutely! I think we also agreed that it is composed of individuals and not churches. That being the case, the signs out the front tell us little about the salvation of the individuals inside. I promise you that not everyone that attends a congregation with the “
Church of Christ” sign out the front will be saved. The sign offers us no assurance in and of itself. Assembling with other “Christians” offers us no assurance in and of itself either. Now, I’d imagine you’d agree with that, though I don’t want to be too presumptious. The thing is, it works the other way too.

Why is it impossible that individuals outside that building might also be saved? We’ve agreed the things that matter are faith, confession, repentance and baptism. Is it impossible that some have met these “requirements” while not attending a church with the “Church of Christ” sign out the front?

Now, for that 100% perfect understanding concern, note the sequence of events in Matthew 28:19-20. First, sinners are taught the gospel and become converted to the Lord. Then, additional teaching occurs that strengthens thems for continuing service to the Lord.
Agreed and essentially my point. Conversion comes before perfect understanding. It’s not a prerequisite, it’s a continuing process. Your position implies the inverse to me.

Now, let's go back to the first part of the process. Suppose someone is taught of salvation through Jesus, but told they only need to belief in Him to be saved. So, they believe in Jesus in their heart and feel they are saved. Are they truly saved?
I don’t know. I don’t see how you could either. I believe in absolute truth, but I recognise that our expressions are very often relative. The issue is less about the statement and more about the heart. Eg: I know some people who say that salvation comes through faith alone. Now, for some of them that means they simply need to confess with their mouth and then they can go about living for themselves as they did before, content in their belief that they’re saved. They’re wrong. I know others who say they are saved by faith alone, who really mean more than a simple confession. Their expression means a living, vibrant, realised faith. Ie: A faith that necessarily brings repentence, obedience and fruit. I see that the fruits of their conversion are consistent with scripture. Same teaching, different realisations of that teaching.


Likewise I know of some who teach that salvation requires faith and works. For some that means they must earn their salvation through works, independent of their expression of faith. They’re wrong. For others it’s about acknowledging that true works accompany true faith. Personally, I like the expression “By grace, through faith, for works.” But I don’t expect it means the same thing in my reaslisation of it as it does in others.

Ultimately, that’s where I recognise the matter to be truly important – in our hearts and demonstrated through the fruit we bear. We can all claim to believe x,y and z but that doesn’t mean we’re all agreeing on what x,y and z are. The evidence is often more apparent in our actions and love for another than in our words alone.

After careful thought and study, if you still believe the disobedient also receive the blessings promised, then I believe the burden of proof is yours to scripturally show how this is true. In essence, this is what the denominational folks are doing. They want the blessings, but don't submit to the requirements of God.
This comes back to the whole perfect understanding point again. Consider times in your life that you recognised you weren’t being obedient and then responded. Did that mean you weren’t Christian while you were unaware of that issue? What if someone were able to demonstrate to you that Jesus absolutely meant for “wine” (alcoholic) to be used for communion, but you’d been using grape juice? Would that mean you weren’t a christian until you rectified it? I’d be more inclined to agree with your point if it were apparent that denominationalists were aware that they were in error and choosing to remain disobedient.


I’ll collect some scriptures for you while you’re away nonetheless
 
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cremi

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Anytime we declare any one person or group of persons to be saved or not, we step onto delicate ground. God did not give us the ability to see into another's heart or mind--at least not as HE really sees us.

A person can follow all of the rules--at least the rules as any one person interprets them, but may not be saved. Why? Because only God can see their heart. On the other hand, one can seemingly "miss" the truth by not performing well, and yet be saved. I'm not saying that everyone is saved simply by what they "think" is right--I don't believe that, but we often throw people into categories, simply because they are not following the rules as we see fit.

Until one has been given the mind of God, the eyes of God or the heart of God, we need to be careful to not condemn those who may not follow our rules.

Therefore, I have no issue with Rule #4.
 
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Since I wrote the Sticky, I feel as if something needs to be said.

First of all, there is no "Rule #4." Point # 4 in the sticky is, or at least, was, merely a statement, about what I believe was and is one of the key points of the RM, placed there as information for anyone who may be wondering what the RM is - to wit, we are not the only Christians, but we are Christians only.

However, that statement has since been rewritten, reflecting this sub-forum's unfortunate trend toward sectarianism.

I suggest that anyone who has a problem with what I wrote in the Sticky write their own, and try to convince a mod to put it up. No skin off my teeth.
 
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4) "We are not the only Christians, but we are Christians only." Restoration Movement believers do not claim to be the only Christians, and we accept other believers who profess to believe in Jesus Christ as our brothers and sisters. However, we do not attach any other name to ourselves other than "Christian." There is a very small percentage of RM believers who believe that only RM believers are true Christians, but this is not a popular view."

Looks good. You might add "They tend to be very vocal." :p
 
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4) "We are not the only Christians, but we are Christians only." Restoration Movement believers do not claim to be the only Christians, and we accept other believers who profess to believe in Jesus Christ as our brothers and sisters. However, we do not attach any other name to ourselves other than "Christian." There is a very small percentage of RM believers who believe that only RM believers are true Christians, but this is not a popular view."

Looks good. You might add "They tend to be very vocal." :p

Well that's weird. At one point a few days ago point #4 had been changed to something much different. Now it appears as if my original version is back.

Well anyway, my point still stands: anyone who has a problem with the Sticky is free to write their own and submit it to a moderator. I'm not married to it.
 
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If there is NO free will, then please explain how we can be accountable. After all, if God programmed us to be sinners and lost, then wouldn't God ultimately be responsible. After all, He "made us" that way, so why wouldn't He be accountable?

Joshua 24:14-28. Choice. Beautiful text. Free will. God let the Israelites choose. However, it was necessary for them to make the right choices - assuming they wanted God's approval and blessings.

Ok lets start out by considering the Sovereign will of God...I am just going to quote a section from Ezekiel from memory to demonstarte the Sovereign will of God..

The Lord who streaches forth the heavens with his hands, who laid the foundation of the Earth, and who causes the spirit to form inside of a man, declares...

Now starting with Israel we can begin to tear the doctrine of free will to shreds....

All the inhabitants of the earth are accounted as nothing, but He does according to His will in the Host of heaven and among the inhabitants of earth; and no one can ward off His hand or say to Him, "What hast Thou done" (Daniel 4:35).

The Lord fashioned evil against Israel [His chosen people] and devised a plan against them (Jeremiah 18:11).

The Lord causes us Israel to stray from His ways, and hardens their hearts from fearing Him (Isaiah 63:17).

A man's way is not in himself; Nor is it in a man who walks to direct his steps (Jeremiah 10:23).

Have not even warmed up yet......man thinks he has free will, the reality is the Highness of Gods ways.... we can only operate within his will not outside of it...

I hope that you have a glimpse of the highness of Gods ways now...

Peace
 
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SpiritDriven

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Anytime we declare any one person or group of persons to be saved or not, we step onto delicate ground. God did not give us the ability to see into another's heart or mind--at least not as HE really sees us.

A person can follow all of the rules--at least the rules as any one person interprets them, but may not be saved. Why? Because only God can see their heart. On the other hand, one can seemingly "miss" the truth by not performing well, and yet be saved. I'm not saying that everyone is saved simply by what they "think" is right--I don't believe that, but we often throw people into categories, simply because they are not following the rules as we see fit.

Until one has been given the mind of God, the eyes of God or the heart of God, we need to be careful to not condemn those who may not follow our rules.

Therefore, I have no issue with Rule #4.

What rules....?

God works all things after the counsel of His will (Ephesians 1:11).

It was the Father's good pleasure for all the fulness to dwell in Christ, and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven (Colossians 1:19-20).

No one can resist His will (Romans 9:19).

The sovereign will of God will always prevail....never doubt it again.

Peace
 
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