Of course they do..they know that what it means an even Calvin supposedly agreed: Calvin even sympathetically declares "I confess that this decree ought to appal us", specifically, when we think of reprobation according to human reason alone (Wendel 281), http://www.reformedtheology.ca/calvin.html
Unconditional election means that no condition was found in those HE elected to cause HIM to elect them nor was any condition found in those who were left to reprobation to cause HIM to pass over them for election. Everyone was totally equal in not having any condition in themselves that caused their election or reprobation. Period.
After accepting this they then go against Calvin and say that '...but the decision to elect some and not others was NOT arbitrary, ie , not based upon a choice based upon no reason at all' because they understand that this is untenable to everyone but Calvin.
My full study of this topic is chapter length but i will post it if requested...
Unconditional election means unconditional non-election, people being damned before they ever sinned, a phrase which denotes their innocence. Unconditional election means everyone was just as acceptable for election as everyone but some did not receive it.
1 Timothy 5:21 I charge thee before GOD and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the ELECT angels. Since there are elect angels we can assume that the demonic angels were passed over for election or not considered for election. Angels do not presumably have any racial solidarity, ie, they all are holy or sinful by their own choice, not by anyone else's choice. So now we have to answer the question: were some elected before or after the fall of the Satanic rebellion?
IF they were elected / chosen before the fall then there is no stated reason for the non-election of the others. Unconditional, unmerited, election then also means unconditional unmerited non-election, ie, for no lack of merit or sinful condition at all some were passed over for salvation and NOT chosen to be saved if they should ever sin.
What can we make of such a supposition? Can we say it is loving? Righteous? Just? The best we can say is HE is sovereign and if HE chose this way then who are you to argue, which is not a real answer at all. Why teach us HE is loving, righteous and just if it has no meaning in the biggest question in their existence: Why were some passed over for election!!!
[ASIDE: It is entirely possible that the decision for some to receive unconditional unmerited election and others to receive unmerited rejection for election with no indication that this decision was loving, righteous or just could have precipitated the Satanic war in heaven when the non-elect were subject to a decision that was NOT loving, righteous or just so they committed themselves to war, putting their faith in the belief that YHWH was a false god and a liar, unworthy of being their GOD.]
This is what unconditional implies. It implies 'no reason', not just an 'unknown reason' because if there was a reason there would be merit to being on the side of the reason. Unconditional election means everyone was just as acceptable for election as everyone but some did not receive it....that is what 'without merit' also means! That does NOT sound like YHWH at all. IF they were passed over for a evil they did then there is a righteous reason to their being passed over and to the election of those that were not passed over but who got the promise of election because they did not do that evil!!
IF election was a response to the Satanic rebellion to reward those angels who did not rebel and to pass over those angels who did rebel and condemn them on the spot, then election by merit makes sense. Their rebellion to the command to put their faith in the Son and to love one another which they heard in the beginning* is then the reason they were passed over to be HIS Bride. The choice by some to accept HIM as their GOD and to put their faith in in HIS Son was then the reason they were elected based upon the merit of this choice to obey the commandment.
*1 John 3:11 For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. I believe that John is referring to the loving purpose GOD has for each of us: 1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment, That we should believe on the name of His Son, Jesus Christ, and love one another, as He gave us commandment.
Thus we probably have a precedent in the angels for election being based upon merit and proper free will decisions being the condition of being elected. And since unconditional election is apparently false in the first people elected, I strongly suggest that it is also wrongly used for sinful men who were also elected in the beginning before the foundation of the world, Ephesians 1:4.
Thanks, I won't write more in the thread about this question, for the sake of the OP.
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