Well, if "united to His own workmanship" means Jesus was joined to sinners, no. Jesus on the cross started all which is right, that we may be joined to Him, by being "baptized into His death" (Romans 6:3).
Hebrews 2:14-15 does say >
"Inasmuch then as the children have partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same, that through death He might destroy him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, and release those who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage." (Hebrews 2:14-15)
So, in case you mean Jesus was united to humans who were fallen . . . no > Jesus came in His own flesh and blood body, not united with evil people, but He did share in flesh and blood, not at all sharing with us in our sin.
And He did this so we could become united with Him >
"But he who is joined to the Lord is one spirit with Him." (1 Corinthians 6:17)
So, Jesus did not become united with us in our sin, but in trusting in Christ > Ephesians 1:12 > a person becomes "one spirit with Him."
Taking on a physical body did not make Jesus spiritually united with us.
Yes, but not by becoming united with His fallen creation. But we needed to be changed so we are now united with Jesus in His death that we may also share with Him in His resurrection.
This can fit with Hebrews 2:14-15. Note how "fear of death" is slavery to Satan, in any case.
The Bible does not say this, does it????
Also, our Apostle Paul clearly says, how
"by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous," in Romans 5:19.
So, why is Mary being brought into this, please? Jesus is the One who has saved us. Jesus has made atonement for both men and women. So, what are you saying that Mary has to do with women, if you are saying this?I do not find such in the Bible, that Mary was somehow connected with Jesus . . . like to Eve being connected to Adam. So, my opinion is that a Christian church father would not have said this, and so in case there really did exist a Christian named Irenaeus, he would not have written this, but perhaps someone counterfeited this, in order to piggy-back on the credibility of him.
I do not see this in the Bible. Hebrews 4:15 clearly says Jesus went though all that He did, "yet without sin." So, He was free from our sin, in all He did. So, He could not have joined to our sinful human nature.
In case you mean all humanity is now in the process of being restored to God, this is not correct >
"But evil men and impostors shall grow worse and worse, deceiving and being deceived." (2 Timothy 3:13)
We who are in Christ are more and more growing in how Jesus is, but not all humans are in this process. So, saying "the whole of human nature" is being restored is not Biblical, in case this is what he means.
I think these quotes are not clear, maybe. And we could do much better by giving our attention to what the Bible actually does say.
Possibly, you yourself could state exactly what you understand, in much more clear language so we can discuss what you really mean and intend, here, in case these quotes don't mean what the look to me like they could mean.