I asked:
"If all saved peope will have a changed for the better behavior, why is the Bible so full of all the commands to be "holy and blameless", and other commands regarding behavior?"
How does this answer the question of WHY all the commands regarding better behavior?
I fail to understand how you could not comprehend my answer.
Why did you not answer my question? and you continue to dodge the very clear issue of all the commands for holy living, which is directly to saved people.
Apparently you couldn't hear what I was saying.
I heard you perfectly clear, and explained WHY your view cannot be correct.
That's the proposition of Free Grace Theology, but it's not true. Take for example 1John 3:9,10.
Well, I just explained the meaning of v.9 before. If you disagree, you're going to have to do much better than just say so. You're going to have to prove your disapproval, and refutre my explanation. Not just express disagreement.
Because while no one born of God will continue to sin, they are not sinlessly perfect and as such will sin from time to time.
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btw, I forgot to mention in my previous post that your mention of the "present tense" actually sinks YOUR own boat.
Glad you pointed out that sinning is in the present tense. That itself PROVES your view is wrong. v.9 says "not continue to sin". That would have to mean no longer sins, in the present tense. But the present tense supports my explanation, that when the believer is functioning PRESENTLY in the born again new nature, they cannot sin PRESENTLY.
I said:
""his commands are not burdensome, for everyone born of God overcomes the world." 1
John 5:3
These commands are not burdensome, but only when the believer is filled with the Spirit (Eph 5:18) and walking with the Spirit (Gal 5:16)."
So you’re adding words to the verse again? The verse doesn’t mention any such conditions.
So, it seems you'd just rather ignore those commands of Paul, that are applicable to believers AT ALL TIMES. And I didn't add words to 1 Jn 5:3. I pointed out related verses that deal with HOW not to sin.
Do you think a believer can sin when filled with the Spirit? yes or no. Put your cards on the table for all to see.
I asked:
"Or do you also deny this verse?
Eph 4:17 - So I tell you this, and insist on it in the Lord, that you must no longer live as the Gentiles do, in the futility of their thinking."
Again, I dealt with such verses. You just didn’t listen. You apparently couldn’t hear because you couldn’t handle the implications in light of your allegiance to Free Grace Theology.
Where did you "deal" with Eph 4:17? Cite the post #, if that is really true.
So now you’re saying I’m either insane or delusional.
No. I said your view is that. I don't know you at all, and can't make that judgment. But your view sure is.
My objective is not convincing you but rather to show how irrational your position is.
Well, when will you be meeting your objective? All you've done so far is express your disagreement and distaste for Free Grace theology. You've failed to provide any evidence at all.
And that’s pretty much been proven at this point. You’ve devolved your argument into personal attacks calling me insane or delusional and make the false claim that I’m in in disagreement with Paul.
Please read my posts more carefully. I've been careful to describe YOUR VIEWS as insane or delusional. Not you. Quit taking this so personal. It's your views I'm debating.
I've shown you what the scriptures says, but you don't listen. You can't hear what it's saying.
Anyone can read my responses and see clearly that I not only heard what YOU think the verses say, but I've explained HOW and WHY your views are wrong.
Aorist
Once again:
1John 3:9,10 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains I him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.
“No one”,”him”,”he” is referring to a person, not a thing.
Why include "aorist" here? Didn't you previously claim the verse used the present tense?
Unlike the English Present tense, the Koine Greek Present tense can refer to lifestyle, characteristic behavior, that which is typical, in contrast to the Aorist which speaks of events. Therefore not sinning is not speaking about a series of events, but rather behavior which is typical of the individual.
I don't believe a word you say about this tense. So at least cite a source.
Here are my sources for the present tense in the Greek:
Greek Verb Tenses (Intermediate Discussion)
"For action happening at the present time, only the '
present tense' is available. Whether the writer is wishing in any particular instance to emphasis the progressive aspect of the verb or just indicate a simple occurrence at the present time, there is only one choice of tense to use. Therefore, one must consider the context and the basic meaning of the verb to determine whether the emphasis is on the continuous aspect of the action or merely on the present time element. It may be that no real emphasis on progressive action is intended but, for a statement requiring the element of present time, there is no choice but to use the 'present tense'. (Of course outside the indicative mood the emphasis almost certainly will be on the progressive element of the verb, since the aorist tense could readily be employed)."
See? Nothing here about lifestyle at all.
Verse 10 further validates this point (interpretation based upon CONTEXT) insomuch as verse 10 speaks of identifying children of God based upon their behavior.
I've already given my refutation and explanation. If you disagree, then address my points and prove why I'm wrong. All you're doing here is re-hashing your previous point. I don't need to argue with a broken record.
In contrast Free Grace Theology takes the irrational position that such phrases are not referring to the person but rather a “nature”, not a person. A nature which they claim vacillates between being a child of God and a child of the devil.
Please quit lying about what I have already told you. In v.9 being "born of God" DOES refer to our new nature. I guess you just have NEVER been trained or taught anything about believers being new creatures because of having a new born again nature.
When you believed in Christ, did your body change? No. What did change? Did you lose your sinful nature? No. So what changed? Do you even know?
Consequently, as shown in this thread, among other things Free Gracers cannot claim to be children of God.
Nonsense. Everyone who has placed their faith in Jesus Christ as their Savior ARE children of God.
Your claim definitely demonstrates that you'll stoop as low as possible to denigrate a theology that you just don't like.
But you've proven nothing else. And you don't even grasp that believers have a new nature.