Quiverfull Church

Sabertooth

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For us and most people that I have met in QF, God brought us to this conviction spontaneously. It would be a very difficult sell to compel someone to observe QF externally and, even then, it wouldn't likely stick.

For starters, there is no command in the Bible that we must be QF. (Or any clear judgment associated with its rejection.)


  1. It is only when we get the revelation (that one can only be conceived [in marriage] in God's perfect will), that it dawns on us that deliberate contraception is a wholesale rejection of His will.
  2. It becomes the dilemma that contraception is effectively saying, "No, Lord...!?"
  3. Our response to that dilemma (in QF) is the conviction that we should receive (not reject) whichever children He might send.
Without that revelation, dilemma & conviction, there is no buy-in for QF.
 
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NursingNinja

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I hope you do not mind I was reading your thread. Would you mind answering some questions SaberTooth? Please don't take them the wrong way I just want to know how you understand this stuff.

1&2. If I understand this correctly you're saying that for a Baby to be born within God's perfect will then it has to be in marriage therefore rejecting this is rejecting his perfect will.

My question here is what do you mean by God's Perfect Will? Do you mean this in a sense of the Law? Do you mean in the sense of wisdom? Or do you mean in the sense of sovereignty?

What I am getting at is this, if you mean Law then birth control of any form or practice would be a universal sin binding to all consciences. If you mean wisdom then this would be an issue comparable to salad vs cheeseburger, neither morally binding but still worth considering with regards to Biblical principal.

If you mean with regards to sovereignty are you saying that not having kids thwarts God's will? I realize there are different views on the connection between free will and sovereignty I am just curious how you understand that Biblically with relation to childbearing.

3. Here by the use of the word "should" I am understanding this as Law. How is a Biblical Law only applicable on an individual basis? Is not blasphemy always a sin for example? Whether the individual is personally convicted for or against it?
 
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Sabertooth

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Someone who has arrived at Quiverfull convictions will have a sense of all of these things from above. Unless and until that happens, non-abortive contraception is not a Biblical issue, because the Bible doesn't speak directly to that practice.

It is a bit like the Old Testament laws about washing one's hands or eating kosher (or even male circumcision). Jesus made it clear that not washing your hands would not defile you, spiritually. But hygienic history has made it clear that hand-washing is highly recommended, to avoid the consequences of harmful germs. (God gave the Jews a head start on this, as demonstrated in the Black Plague.) The same can be proposed about the other two given practices.

Another example: If God told YOU, personally, to never use tobacco (with or without explanation, but you knew it was Him), the fact that the Bible doesn't speak to it directly would be irrelevant. You would probably start to see indirect references in Scripture, but they would not be compelling to anyone else not so convicted.

“'I have the right to do anything,' you say—but not everything is beneficial. 'I have the right to do anything'—but not everything is constructive." 1 Corinthians 10:23 NIV
 
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