- Oct 26, 2006
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I'm asking Catholics and Orthodox to please not post in this thread. I've heard their say on the matter, so I don't need to get it off tagant on ground covered a hundred times before.
I'm not trying to start a fight, but somethings been bugging me for a while now. I do not believe in praying to Mary or the Saints, nor do I believe that the Pope is inerrant, etc. I believe that both Catholics and Orthodox are Christians, I just don't think their Traditions are absolute, or even correct in some cases. However...
If this is true, then why did God allow these errors to perpetuate for so long? I just don't understand why He allowed this stuff to continue for about a thousand years or more. I've tried to see it from their PoV, but for me to believe certain Traditions would require that I commit intellectual suicide in regards to Scripture.
With the saints, I understand that actually praying for them to interceede with Christ came later, and that at first it was more along the way of Elisha's body when he died. I'm fine with that. But when did complete Papal Infallibility and Intercession come about? More importantly, is it just something minor or is it a fairly large error? If so, why did Christ allow it and continues to allow it?
I'm not trying to start a fight, but somethings been bugging me for a while now. I do not believe in praying to Mary or the Saints, nor do I believe that the Pope is inerrant, etc. I believe that both Catholics and Orthodox are Christians, I just don't think their Traditions are absolute, or even correct in some cases. However...
If this is true, then why did God allow these errors to perpetuate for so long? I just don't understand why He allowed this stuff to continue for about a thousand years or more. I've tried to see it from their PoV, but for me to believe certain Traditions would require that I commit intellectual suicide in regards to Scripture.
With the saints, I understand that actually praying for them to interceede with Christ came later, and that at first it was more along the way of Elisha's body when he died. I'm fine with that. But when did complete Papal Infallibility and Intercession come about? More importantly, is it just something minor or is it a fairly large error? If so, why did Christ allow it and continues to allow it?