Question about lineage of Jesus

bostonlass

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Hi-

I was reading Matthew the other night and got stumped by this:

And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.


-Matthew 1:16


Why am I stumped you ask? Well Joseph is not the biological father of Jesus, so this lineage presented to us in Matthew doesn't really show anything of Jesus' lineage. So........why is it in here? :confused:

Don't get me wrong - my belief is that Jesus was indeed a descendant of Ibrahim but I just don't understand the logic behind this verse if it's meant to prove that fact.

Thanks!:wave:
 

Hakan101

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Hi-

I was reading Matthew the other night and got stumped by this:

And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.


-Matthew 1:16


Why am I stumped you ask? Well Joseph is not the biological father of Jesus, so this lineage presented to us in Matthew doesn't really show anything of Jesus' lineage. So........why is it in here? :confused:

Don't get me wrong - my belief is that Jesus was indeed a descendant of Ibrahim but I just don't understand the logic behind this verse if it's meant to prove that fact.

Thanks!:wave:

Huh, I never thought of that either! I think it's because Joseph accepted Jesus as his son, since he was born of Mary, who was a virgin. Kinda like how we are adopted into God's kingdom, Jesus was adopted into the lineage of Abraham, even though Joseph did not conceive Jesus.

Thanks for bringing this up, I'm gonna look into it more.:thumbsup:
 
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singpeace

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It was the tradition of the Jews to trace the lineage through the father. However, Joseph was not Jesus' father by blood.

It just so happens that Mary's lineage traced back to the same line as Joseph's.

That is why they include her name, because they were tracing Jesus' lineage, but it could only be accurately traced through his mother.
 
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57Logos

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If one reads carefully thru this lineage in Matthew 1:1-16, you will notice that Jesus, thru Joseph tho not his father, but trusted guardian; is being connected to the Royal Throne of Israel thru King David, and Solomon, and their descendants who where the Kings of Judah. We must remember that Matthew is writing his gospel presenting Jesus as a King. So he wanted to connect Jesus to the Royal Throne of David. Thus Matthew connect Jesus to the throne of David,

Matthew 1:16
And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.

The term, of whom, is feminine singular indicating the virgin birth. We know this is true because that in Matthew 1:18-25 we read of the Angel telling Joseph this.


Whereas in the Book of Luke, Luke is concerned with presenting Jesus, as man (the God-man). So Luke gives Mary's ancestory all the way back to
Adam (Luke 3:23-38), he probably does this to connect Jesus with the promise seed of the woman (Genesis 3:15). Whereas Matthew only goes back to Abraham. Luke also gives us the age of Jesus (Luke 3:23). You will also notice yes, Jesus is still the Son of David, but thru Mary, He doesn't have a direct link to the Royal Throne because Mary's lineage does not come from Solomon, but thru Nathan (Luke 3:31)
 
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Incariol

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Hi-

I was reading Matthew the other night and got stumped by this:

And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.


-Matthew 1:16


Why am I stumped you ask? Well Joseph is not the biological father of Jesus, so this lineage presented to us in Matthew doesn't really show anything of Jesus' lineage. So........why is it in here? :confused:

Don't get me wrong - my belief is that Jesus was indeed a descendant of Ibrahim but I just don't understand the logic behind this verse if it's meant to prove that fact.

Thanks!:wave:

Just patriarchal, chauvinistic, classical culture at work for you. Adopted patrilineal genealogy trumps the matrilineal biological genealogy.
 
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