Question about Hebrew word for “good” in Psalms

[HypnoToad]

Basically, I’m looking for the difference between a Hebrew noun and a Hebrew adjective when it appears to be the same word. In English, “good” can be an adjective or noun, depending on how it’s used.

Psalm 34:14 - “Depart from evil and do good.”

Psalm 106:1- “Give thanks to the Lord, for He is good.”

In English, “good” in Psalm 34 is used as a noun, is it not? And in Psalm 106, we typically read “good” as an adjective.

In the Hebrew, the word for “good” in both verses appears to be exactly the same (according to my interlinear Bible).

So I’m wondering if the Hebrew here works the same, that it is the usage/context that determines whether it’s supposed to be a noun or adjective? Or does the way the word is written actually indicate it’s one or the other in Hebrew?

 

[1 John 4:1]

Basically, I’m looking for the difference between a Hebrew noun and a Hebrew adjective when it appears to be the same word. In English, “good” can be an adjective or noun, depending on how it’s used.

Psalm 34:14 - “Depart from evil and do good.”

Psalm 106:1- “Give thanks to the Lord, for He is good.”

In English, “good” in Psalm 34 is used as a noun, is it not? And in Psalm 106, we typically read “good” as an adjective.

In the Hebrew, the word for “good” in both verses appears to be exactly the same (according to my interlinear Bible).

So I’m wondering if the Hebrew here works the same, that it is the usage/context that determines whether it’s supposed to be a noun or adjective? Or does the way the word is written actually indicate it’s one or the other in Hebrew?

ֱIt's by context:: http://www.becomingjewish.org/learning_biblical_hebrew/pdf/adjectives-hebrew.pdf

EDIT: although part of that context is that they have to agree with the noun in gender and number which is based on how they are written.

 

[HypnoToad]

ֱIt's by context:: http://www.becomingjewish.org/learning_biblical_hebrew/pdf/adjectives-hebrew.pdf

So, if it's by context, am I correct in thinking it is possible to understand it as a noun in Psalm 106? Like how English can use "good" to mean "goodness"? For example, if I wanted to say, "God is goodness"; I might still write it as "God is good," intending "good" to be read as a noun there.

EDIT: although part of that context is that they have to agree with the noun in gender and number which is based on how they are written.

That part I already knew.

 

[1 John 4:1]

So, if it's by context, am I correct in thinking it is possible to understand it as a noun in Psalm 106? Like how English can use "good" to mean "goodness"?

Yep. They are actually written the same way in both verses.

 

[HypnoToad]

Yep. They are actually written the same way in both verses.

Cool. ty, sir

 

[1 John 4:1]

The construct state is actually an example of this: Construct state - Wikipedia just a warning I am no expert on Hebrew but I was pretty confident that I could answer this question.


EDIT: actually the construct state is genitive (possessive) so that's different than adjective form, sorry haha.

 

[Tree of Life]

Basically, I’m looking for the difference between a Hebrew noun and a Hebrew adjective when it appears to be the same word. In English, “good” can be an adjective or noun, depending on how it’s used.

Psalm 34:14 - “Depart from evil and do good.”

Psalm 106:1- “Give thanks to the Lord, for He is good.”

In English, “good” in Psalm 34 is used as a noun, is it not? And in Psalm 106, we typically read “good” as an adjective.

In the Hebrew, the word for “good” in both verses appears to be exactly the same (according to my interlinear Bible).

So I’m wondering if the Hebrew here works the same, that it is the usage/context that determines whether it’s supposed to be a noun or adjective? Or does the way the word is written actually indicate it’s one or the other in Hebrew?

Hebrew poetry is difficult to translate. The verse in Psalm 106 would literally (woodenly) be rendered: “Hallelujah. Give thanks to Yahweh because good because to forever his faithfulness.”

There are actually several possibilities. It could be “give thanks to Yahweh because He is good.” Or it could be “give thanks to Yahweh because it is good (to do so).”

It’s a noun, but it is being used in Psalm 106:1 like an adjective.

 

[HypnoToad]

The construct state is actually an example of this: Construct state - Wikipedia just a warning I am no expert on Hebrew but I was pretty confident that I could answer this question.
EDIT: actually the construct state is genitive (possessive) so that's different than adjective form, sorry haha.

Sorry, does that mean you'd need to change a previous answer?

 

[HypnoToad]

Hebrew poetry is difficult to translate. The verse in Psalm 106 would literally (woodenly) be rendered: “Hallelujah. Give thanks to Yahweh because good because to forever his faithfulness.”

There are actually several possibilities. It could be “give thanks to Yahweh because He is good.” Or it could be “give thanks to Yahweh because it is good (to do so).”

It’s a noun, but it is being used in Psalm 106:1 like an adjective.

Ok, thx

 

[1 John 4:1]

So, if it's by context, am I correct in thinking it is possible to understand it as a noun in Psalm 106? Like how English can use "good" to mean "goodness"? For example, if I wanted to say, "God is goodness"; I might still write it as "God is good," intending "good" to be read as a noun there.


That part I already knew.

Actually sorry I didn't look closely at your designation of nouns and adjectives. Actually in both verses I believe it is being used as an adjective, check this interlinear: Psalm 34:14 Interlinear: Turn aside from evil and do good, Seek peace and pursue it. Also Gesenius lists it as an adjective only: Genesis 1:1 (KJV) maybe the translation isn't exactly literal or it changes in english.

 

[1 John 4:1]

Sorry, does that mean you'd need to change a previous answer?

No I was just refering to my statement that "construct form" was an example of a noun being used as an adjective (it's not) I did change my answer for other reasons (see above post) I'm probably out of my depth here so I'll defer to whatever language experts are on here to correct what I've said but the above post represents my best answer.

 

[HypnoToad]

Actually sorry I didn't look closely at your designation of nouns and adjectives. Actually in both verses I believe it is being used as an adjective, check this interlinear: Psalm 34:14 Interlinear: Turn aside from evil and do good, Seek peace and pursue it. Also Gesenius lists it as an adjective only: Genesis 1:1 (KJV) maybe the translation isn't exactly literal or it changes in english.

Your second link there says it can be an adjective or a noun, and includes "goodness" as one way it's translated. I don't see the "adjective only" part.

 

[1 John 4:1]

Your second link there says it can be an adjective or a noun, and includes "goodness" as one way it's translated. I don't see the "adjective only" part.

That's just the usage in the English translation. Look under "Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon [?]" that's a Hebrew lexicon.

 

[HypnoToad]

That's just the usage in the English translation. Look under "Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon [?]" that's a Hebrew lexicon.

Oh, I see. Did you click on "Read the full entry"? Because the extended part seems to still say it can be a noun, unless I'm just not getting something, which is completely possible.

 

[1 John 4:1]

Oh, I see. Did you click on "Read the full entry"? Because the extended part seems to still say it can be a noun, unless I'm just not getting something, which is completely possible.

The only part I see is on "(7)" and that I think is with a proper name of a region.

EDIT: which place are you seeing that?

 

[HypnoToad]

The only part I see is on "(7)" and that I think is with a proper name of a region.

EDIT: which place are you seeing that?

Up near the top, part (b) - it says "goodness, kindness, uprightness" - nouns.

 

[1 John 4:1]

The only part I see is on "(7)" and that I think is with a proper name of a region.

EDIT: which place are you seeing that?

Oh, I see. Did you click on "Read the full entry"? Because the extended part seems to still say it can be a noun, unless I'm just not getting something, which is completely possible.

Actually nevermind, if you are looking at the top below the transliteration then that is the Hebrew (I thought you were looking at "outline of biblical usage." Strong's does say it can be a noun:

"Strong’s Definitions H2895; good (as an adjective) in the widest sense; used likewise as a noun, both in the masculine and the feminine, the singular and the plural (good, a good or good thing, a good man or woman; the good, goods or good things, good men or women), also as an adverb (well):—beautiful, best, better, bountiful, cheerful, at ease, × fair (word), (be in) favour, fine, glad, good (deed, -lier, -liest, -ly, -ness, -s), graciously, joyful, kindly, kindness, liketh (best), loving, merry, × most, pleasant, pleaseth, pleasure, precious, prosperity, ready, sweet, wealth, welfare, (be) well(-favoured)."

 

[HypnoToad]

Actually nevermind, if you are looking at the top below the transliteration then that is the Hebrew (I thought you were looking at "outline of biblical usage." Strong's does say it can be a noun:

"Strong’s Definitions H2895; good (as an adjective) in the widest sense; used likewise as a noun, both in the masculine and the feminine, the singular and the plural (good, a good or good thing, a good man or woman; the good, goods or good things, good men or women), also as an adverb (well):—beautiful, best, better, bountiful, cheerful, at ease, × fair (word), (be in) favour, fine, glad, good (deed, -lier, -liest, -ly, -ness, -s), graciously, joyful, kindly, kindness, liketh (best), loving, merry, × most, pleasant, pleaseth, pleasure, precious, prosperity, ready, sweet, wealth, welfare, (be) well(-favoured)."

Ok, good. Noun.

You're not allowed to change your mind anymore.

 

[1 John 4:1]

Up near the top, part (b) - it says "goodness, kindness, uprightness" - nouns.

On "(b)" he seems to be pulling from the Greek usage (not sure why). The word there at the beginning is in Greek. I'm not sure if by "kindness" he is saying it can be translated as a noun or that it is actually a noun in the original. Just some thoughts.

 

[HypnoToad]

On "(b)" he seems to be pulling from the Greek usage (not sure why). The word there at the beginning is in Greek. I'm not sure if by "kindness" he is saying it can be translated as a noun or that it is actually a noun in the original. Just some thoughts.

Yeah, I saw that Greek word, but he's using an Isaiah verse. I'm confused by that as well.