I'm not sure that I am following your question. Did God say that he will only do things a certain way? A similar question came up on a different thread in which the question of temple ceremonies/ordinances were changed (When you have time to post your comments there, I will be interested to read it.) From the responses both here and there, I think that I am in the minority in thinking that it is ok for God to change the way that he does things as long as it doesn't change his purposes or go against his will. We don't always know why. I know that the testimonies that I have heard of how people came to know that God is real and the Jesus is the Messiah are each so unique, that it doesn't surprise me to think of there being variances in how people are given the gift of the Holy Spirit/Ghost.Is it demanding to "hold" an unchangeable God to His own word? (I know that sounds bad, but I don't know how else to say it).
Maybe as an outward expression and declaration to the world of an inward change and identification with Christ?I will risk looking like a fool and say that I don't understand that they (in this instance) received the baptism of fire, as we have agreed to classify it. I know that the text clearly says "gift of the Holy Ghost." But in my understanding, the gift of the Holy Ghost, as a permanent, ongoing companion, has only been promised to those who submit to baptism.
Please understand that I have no interest in splitting hairs here, nor in putting some kind of limit on God's power. I know that He has all power to do whatsoever He will. But I also know that he is the same yesterday, today, and forever, and that He operates by covenant, and that he does not vary from that which he hath said. To bestow the full gift of the Holy Ghost upon someone who had not fulfilled the covenant would, in my mind, negate the necessity of baptism outright. Why would one then need to be baptized, if the gift promised upon submission to the sacrament had already been given?
Why do you think that one is baptized?
It sounds like you view both the story in Helaman 5 and in Acts 8 as similar experiences, in that you see them both as manifestations of the Holy Spirit/Holy Ghost, not the gift of the Holy Ghost.Yes. I believe they received a manifestation of the Holy Ghost. I do not believe they received the full Gift of the Holy Ghost. The former is given temporarily, even though the influence may tarry for days at a time. But if the person does not act upon the influence—if the person acts contrary to what the Spirit has witnessed to him or her, the Holy Ghost necessarily departs. That is what the Gift of the Holy Ghost is all about. Never losing that companionship, barring unworthiness brought upon oneself through persistent sin. Admittedly, it is the Restored Gospel that compels me to draw a deeper line than you may be inclined to draw here. I am OK with that. It is what it is.
I realize that LDS make a distinction between a manifestation of the Holy Ghost and the Gift of the Holy Ghost, with the greatest distinction between the two being the idea that with the gift of the Holy Ghost comes the constant companionship of the Holy Ghost. But if the Holy Ghost leaves if one is unworthy due to sin, is that really so different from a manifestation of the Holy Ghost in which He leaves due to someone not acting upon His influence?
I'm still trying to figure out whether or not there is a second experience in which one is empowered with special graces and gifts of the Holy Spirit. I've read some articles or commentaries that present a good argument for this.Your thoughts?
I don't know that the manifestations of the Holy Spirit will leave if one does not act on them. I tend to think that God pursues us with an unswerving relentless love. I don't think that He would give up on us easily. But when we ignore His voice and go our own way, it might be harder for us to hear Him. And if we abide in Him, He isn't going to leave us.
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