A problem with laws is that many people come to see the stuff that's illegal as being unethical without really knowing why, and therefore not knowing any underlying reasoning that justifies something as illegal means you can't see (via the same type of reasoning) how something could be unethical but not illegal.
So physical violence is considered to be unethical for most people because it's illegal, but very few people would identify any such thing as psychological violence because they don't really grasp the reasoning as to why physical violence is illegal. Physical violence is illegal because it causes some level of disorder in society, and/or violates individual rights for freedom (not just in the physical sense). This largely overlaps with ethical condemnations of physical violence (although there are more details in the ethical consideration camp).
Okay, so take this criterion of disorder and apply it to psychological actions that people do which result in societal disorder and/or violation of individual freedom. This would be what's basically known as psychological violence. But because this isn't illegal (except in extreme cases, e.g., severe psychological abuse resulting in traumatization of another person), nobody really thinks of it as really existing, much less as being within the domain of ethics by being unethical.
Imagine hearing that one of your friends shoved another friend during a debate about whatever. You find out who did the shoving and immediately blame him -- he initiated the physical violence, case closed, easy peasy. But imagine that what caused the person who initiated the shove to go "off the handle" was the other friend being intentionally or at least negligently psychologically manipulative (e.g., calling him subtle names, making smart-alec facial expressions or tones, and/or outright insulting him). Can't we at least make a case that the psychologically violent person is at least as, if not more, responsible for the outcome as the physically violent person?
Obviously there would be stricter limitations in determining what makes up psychological violence, or else any domestic abuser would get off the hook ethically (and potentially legally) because his partner "mouthed off too much." Unlike physical violence, which is as easily seen as objective as objective can be understood to be, psychological stuff involves cognitive filters (thoughts, beliefs, schemas) that might magnify the level of psychological harm on the person who responds with violence.
But still: why don't we seem to capture psychological violence as even being a category and only focus on physical violence? And by extension, why can't we see that violence, far from being only physical, can also be institutional, i.e., written into the rules and organization of society?
So physical violence is considered to be unethical for most people because it's illegal, but very few people would identify any such thing as psychological violence because they don't really grasp the reasoning as to why physical violence is illegal. Physical violence is illegal because it causes some level of disorder in society, and/or violates individual rights for freedom (not just in the physical sense). This largely overlaps with ethical condemnations of physical violence (although there are more details in the ethical consideration camp).
Okay, so take this criterion of disorder and apply it to psychological actions that people do which result in societal disorder and/or violation of individual freedom. This would be what's basically known as psychological violence. But because this isn't illegal (except in extreme cases, e.g., severe psychological abuse resulting in traumatization of another person), nobody really thinks of it as really existing, much less as being within the domain of ethics by being unethical.
Imagine hearing that one of your friends shoved another friend during a debate about whatever. You find out who did the shoving and immediately blame him -- he initiated the physical violence, case closed, easy peasy. But imagine that what caused the person who initiated the shove to go "off the handle" was the other friend being intentionally or at least negligently psychologically manipulative (e.g., calling him subtle names, making smart-alec facial expressions or tones, and/or outright insulting him). Can't we at least make a case that the psychologically violent person is at least as, if not more, responsible for the outcome as the physically violent person?
Obviously there would be stricter limitations in determining what makes up psychological violence, or else any domestic abuser would get off the hook ethically (and potentially legally) because his partner "mouthed off too much." Unlike physical violence, which is as easily seen as objective as objective can be understood to be, psychological stuff involves cognitive filters (thoughts, beliefs, schemas) that might magnify the level of psychological harm on the person who responds with violence.
But still: why don't we seem to capture psychological violence as even being a category and only focus on physical violence? And by extension, why can't we see that violence, far from being only physical, can also be institutional, i.e., written into the rules and organization of society?
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