Link:
Pope Francis and Coptic pope agree not to re-baptize
Was Rome not recognizing Coptic baptism before or vice-versa?
The Coptic baptismal liturgy I found online uses water and immerses the baby (I'm impressed that there are no accidental drownings) three times in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Coptic Christians are trinitarian. Those are the basic requirements for Rome to recognize a valid baptism occuring outside the institutional Church. As a bonus, Coptics even have (and believe in) Apostolic Succession of bishops and in baptism as a sacrament- two similarities Rome usually doesn't even require to recognize a baptism.
Is this a situation where the Coptic Christians weren't recognizing Roman Catholic baptisms and they just came out with cross rrcognition to make it seems like a reciporcal decision? Perhaps the Pope was trying to bring the world's focus onto the challenges Christians are facing in Egypt?
I'll be honest, if we were rebaptizing people already baptized in the Coptic church, I don't understand why. The Council of Chalcedon (The rejection of which caused the Coptic Christians/Oriential Orthodox to split with then still united Roman Catholic/Eastern Orthodox Church) has nothing to be with the validity of baptisms. They affirmed Nicea and Constantinople, which basically takes care of certifying them as trinitarians, whatever disagreements about the nature of Christ may have later arisen. We don't require Protestants to affirm Chalcedon to count their baptisms as valid.
Maybe someone who understands what the status quo was before this agreement can fill us in? Were they using some baptismal liturgies that weren't baptizing with water in the name of all three persons of the trinity? The one I found online did, but if they have more than one baptismal liturgy, that could explain it (Rome doesn't recognize baptisms only done in the name of Christ [Without also including Father and Son] or baptisms done without water, for example. So my first thought was that maybe the Coptics were using some non-compliant baptismal formula, but I couldn't find evidence of that online- the liturgy I found looks compliant). Form, matter, and intent (The three basic things Rome requires for a sacrament in general- any one of the seven sacraments- to be valid in general) all seem to be the same as Rome's, and baptism tends to be the one of the seven where Rome is the least stringent about applying that strictly.
Pope Francis and Coptic pope agree not to re-baptize
Was Rome not recognizing Coptic baptism before or vice-versa?
The Coptic baptismal liturgy I found online uses water and immerses the baby (I'm impressed that there are no accidental drownings) three times in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Coptic Christians are trinitarian. Those are the basic requirements for Rome to recognize a valid baptism occuring outside the institutional Church. As a bonus, Coptics even have (and believe in) Apostolic Succession of bishops and in baptism as a sacrament- two similarities Rome usually doesn't even require to recognize a baptism.
Is this a situation where the Coptic Christians weren't recognizing Roman Catholic baptisms and they just came out with cross rrcognition to make it seems like a reciporcal decision? Perhaps the Pope was trying to bring the world's focus onto the challenges Christians are facing in Egypt?
I'll be honest, if we were rebaptizing people already baptized in the Coptic church, I don't understand why. The Council of Chalcedon (The rejection of which caused the Coptic Christians/Oriential Orthodox to split with then still united Roman Catholic/Eastern Orthodox Church) has nothing to be with the validity of baptisms. They affirmed Nicea and Constantinople, which basically takes care of certifying them as trinitarians, whatever disagreements about the nature of Christ may have later arisen. We don't require Protestants to affirm Chalcedon to count their baptisms as valid.
Maybe someone who understands what the status quo was before this agreement can fill us in? Were they using some baptismal liturgies that weren't baptizing with water in the name of all three persons of the trinity? The one I found online did, but if they have more than one baptismal liturgy, that could explain it (Rome doesn't recognize baptisms only done in the name of Christ [Without also including Father and Son] or baptisms done without water, for example. So my first thought was that maybe the Coptics were using some non-compliant baptismal formula, but I couldn't find evidence of that online- the liturgy I found looks compliant). Form, matter, and intent (The three basic things Rome requires for a sacrament in general- any one of the seven sacraments- to be valid in general) all seem to be the same as Rome's, and baptism tends to be the one of the seven where Rome is the least stringent about applying that strictly.
Last edited: