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But it has been TAUGHT to the church from that day onward.The above is also an overstatement and hence not true.
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But it has been TAUGHT to the church from that day onward.The above is also an overstatement and hence not true.
And yet they never occupied nor did they "conquer" the greater part of the land within those boundaries.The boundaries of the land of Israel are set in Numbers 34. That is a fact
Israel was given all of this land by God, as stated in Joshua 21:43-45. That is a fact.
the opposite is taught under New Covenant theology. Not much said about it under the Abrahamic or Mosaic covenants. And that was the covenant(s) in force at the time.Where does scripture teach that God accepts into His eternal Heaven those who reject Him after they have died physically?
I can only find the opposite taught.
Rather they are PARAMOUNT to the Issue of Identification of Israel and the Church.You are taking this farther and farther away from the OP about replacement theology by bringing up a bunch of side issues.
Romans 3:1-2 does not teach that the Jews - those who remain Jews rejecting Jesus Christ rather than receiving Christ and becoming Christians - own the scriptures. The passage teaches that the Jews who come to Christ are the ones who have an interest in God's kingdom while those who reject Jesus Christ do not.He was talking about the OT scriptures.
But according to Romans 3.1-2, even the NT scriptures belong to the Jews.
And yet they never occupied nor did they "conquer" the greater part of the land within those boundaries.
The only time they set foot on land near the Euphrates was during the Babylonian exile. And even then they didn't occupy it. They were exiles in a land occupied by someone else.
Your example is meaningless for the reason I've stated above.
It is not "replacement theology" it is just exaggeration and overstatement.But it has been TAUGHT to the church from that day onward.
New American Standard uses "congregation" which is the proper translation from the ORIGINAL Hebrew kehilat.
The term "replacement theology" is not helpful because:
So please stop using the term "replacement theology". Thanks!
- It is uncharitable. It does not seek to listen to or understand covenant theology, but rather to dismiss it without giving it a proper hearing.
- It is pejorative. It's meant to cause harm by making our views seem ridiculous and not worthy of consideration.
- It is not accurate. No one would assume this label for themselves because no one believes that the church has "replaced" Israel. When this label is used, what comes across is that our views have not really been understood and the person that we're communicating with does not care to take the time to understand our views.
Unless you yourself are Jewish you do not get to define what is and is not replacement theology.It is not "replacement theology" it is just exaggeration and overstatement.
Yet here you are doing just that.Unless you yourself are Jewish you do not get to define what is and is not replacement theology.
Joshua 1.
Thanks - I have now done so.You can refer back to MY POST #54 in this thread for a brief explanation of that biblical truth if you'd like.
The church always was the covenanted Israel, the church continues to be the covenanted Israel. The only difference is that the NEW covenant of Israel enabled Jewish fullness to be bestowed upon gentile people groups (Gen 12:3).
I sounds like you guys are pretty much on the same page. I don't think I disagree with you but with one very strong caveat.So the church has not replaced Israel. OT Israel was the church in that period. With the coming of Jesus it has taken a different form. But it is fundamentally one body united to one savior.
And yet they never occupied nor did they "conquer" the greater part of the land within those boundaries.
The only time they set foot on land near the Euphrates was during the Babylonian exile. And even then they didn't occupy it.
Your example is meaningless for the reason I've stated above.
But you still possess it, right?Hardly... claninja is 100% correct.
I own land I've never set foot on, much less "occupied" or Conquered"... but I still own it. It still is 100% MY Possession and Belongs ONLY to me.
Yes, I do get to define it as much as anybody else. But it is obvious now after your post that you do not intend to discuss this matter properly. Thanks for your comments. I will stop responding to your comments until they are open enough to promote proper discussion.Unless you yourself are Jewish you do not get to define what is and is not replacement theology.
Thanks - I have now done so.
I sounds like you guys are pretty much on the same page. I don't think I disagree with you but with one very strong caveat.
I believe in a literal Tribulation period where most or all of national Israel on the earth will come to believe on their Messiah.
Time will tell - but it may well be that only those ethnic Jews will believe, reject the Mark of the Beast and be saved to show themselves as among the elect and the true Israel of God. It may well be also that only a remnant of those will physically survive the wrath of the anti-Christ and be alive to see the physical return of Jesus to the earth to rule with a rod of iron for 1000 years.
....but not the land as stated in Joshua 1:1Joshua 21:43-45 Thus the LORD gave Israel all the land He had sworn to give their fathers, and they took possession of it and settled there.
But you still possess it, right?
Ancient Israel never possessed the whole of the land as described. NEVER.