Hello Soyeong.
I do believe I disagreed with every line you wrote, except for one line.
Awww man...I'll have to try better next time.
Jews were bound to both the letter and the spirit of the law. What you wrote is incorrect, Jews were not just bound to the spirit of the law.
As is reflected in modern discussions of law enforcement, the distinction between the letter of the law and the spirit of the law is not based on whether or not someone obeys the law, but in regard to whether not someone obeys the law with respect to its intent. So someone who obeys the spirit of the law has a correct understanding of its intent and keeps their focus on its intent in their execution of the Law, while someone who obeys the letter of the law focuses on obeying it exactly how it is written without concern for its intent. For example:
Leviticus 19:12 You shall not swear by my name falsely, and so profane the name of your God: I am the LORD.
Someone focused on obeying the spirit of this law understands that the intention is that we should not swear falsely, whereas someone focused on obeying the letter of this law understands that we can swear falsely as long as we don't do so in God's name. So this is why I said that Jews are only required to follow the spirit of the Law and that focusing on obeying the letter of the law is a perversion of it.
However, the spirit of the law goes deeper than that because everything in the Bible is there to teach us about God and how to have a relationship with Him. In Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that faith was one of the weightier matters of the Law and obedience to it is straightforwardly about trusting God to guide us in how to rightly live. In John 14:23-24, Jesus said that if we love him, then we will obey his teachings, and that his teachings are not his own, but that of the Father, so the goal of obeying God's commands is to grow in a relationship with Him based on faith and love. If I God were concerned with obedience the the letter of the Law, then He would have not disdained it when His people outwardly obeyed His commands while their hearts were far from Him, but rather God has always been concerned with where our hearts are at, so He disdained it because obedience to the letter of the Law completely missed the whole point of why it was commanded. In Matthew 7:21-23, people were outwardly obeying the Law, but they were nevertheless counted as being Lawless because Jesus never knew them, so again they were missing that the whole point of obeying the Law is a relationship with Christ for righteousness everyone who has faith (Romans 10:4).
Soyeong, we are not discussing whether circumcision grants salvation? Not one of the laws in the entire Bible grants salvation, why you mentioned that I have no idea.
P1: None of God's laws grant salvation.
P2: The people in Acts 15:1 were wanting Gentiles to obey a law in order to grant salvation.
C: Therefore, the law they were wanting Gentiles to obey is not one of God's laws.
While God's Law does require all Jews to become circumcised, it does not require either Jews or Gentiles to become circumcised in order to become saved, so there is therefore a man-made requirement.
Circumcision is the law, a Jew must be circumcised because a Jew is under the law. A Gentile does not need to be circumcised because a Gentile is not under the law, simple.
If you were to grant for the moment that Gentiles are under the Law, then all Gentiles would still not be required to become circumcised because the Law does not require all Gentiles to do that. So the Jerusalem Council upheld the Law by correctly ruling that it does not require all Gentiles to become circumcised, and certainly not for the purpose granting salvation.
We are not discussing any additional man made laws?
We were discussing why Paul opposed Peter to his face in Antioch. Peter was trying to get the Gentiles to obey the law, to live like the Jews. The text does not say that Peter was trying to get the Gentiles, to obey man made rules, that is not what the text is saying.
The issue faced in Acts 15:1 is the same issue faced in Galatians, I brought it up as an example of how we need to be careful to distinguish between what God actually command and what man was requiring. In Acts 10:28, Peter referred to a law that forbade Jews from visiting or associating with Gentiles, so I invite you to either show me where God commanded or to grant that God did not command that, and that it is therefore a man-made requirement. I can assure you it is a man-made requirement because it is actually contrary to Leviticus 19:34. If Paul rebuked Peter because Peter was obeying man-made oral law by withdrawing from the Gentiles, then it is reasonable that "living like a Jew" refers to someone who is living in obedience to Jewish oral laws. Another big hint that Paul was speaking about Jewish oral laws is that he spoke against works of law rather than against God's Law.
Gentiles are under the law of Christ, not the law of Moses.
I don't see a good reason to think that the Law is Christ is anything other than the way that he taught to obey the Law of Moses by word and by example. In John 14:23-24, Jesus said that anyone who loves him will obey his teachings and that his teachings are not his own, but that of the Father who sent him, so he did not depart from what the Father had commanded, nor was he in disagreement with the Father about what conduct we should have.
Sin is still sin whether the law exists or not, Paul makes this point clear to the Gentiles.
Romans 5
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
We are guilty with or without the law. The law simply increases the transgression, that is why so many Jews were powerfully judged by God during the forty years in the desert.
Even Moses failed, not by breaking any law I might add, Moses was simply disobedient.
Now that God's Law is in the world and we are aware of what He has revealed to be sin, we can no longer claim ignorance as an excuse, and as part of the New Covenant we are required to refrain from what God has revealed to be sin. In Romans 7:7, Paul said that God's Law was not sin, so it does not increase transgressions, but rather it is the law of sin that came about for that purpose. The word "Torah" is translated as "instruction", so Moses certainly sinned by not following God's instructions. "Instruction" can be appropriately translated as "law" when it comes with a punishment, so Moses did break God's Law.
The problem with the law is that obedience to the law, in the end makes no difference.
Because obedience to the law cannot change a fallen heart and mind.
Can you honestly read Romans 6:12-19 and tell me that Paul is saying that it makes no difference whether we present ourselves as instruments of sin or as instruments of righteousness? Considering all the many exhortations in the NT for repentance from sin and for obedience, I find your assertion that it makes no difference to be truly bizarre. Jesus didn't begin his ministry by going around and saying that we can continue doing whatever we want because it makes no difference, but rather he began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent from our sins for the Kingdom of God is at hand (Matthew 4:17-23). The consistent message all throughout the Bible and on the lips every single prophet up to and include Jesus was to repent from our sins, so the idea that it makes no difference if we repent is completely unbiblical.
Your statement is incorrect and illogical.
Whether you have the law or not is irrelevant, the way you behave towards God and your neighbor is the telling trait. All humanity was fallen, all alike are sinful, dead in their disobedience and sin. God does not need any laws in order to judge anyone. You can go to hell for not believing in Jesus Christ, that is not even mentioned in the law. You can reach beyond even forgiveness by blaspheming the Holy Spirit, that is not written in the law.
Whether you obey one law or ten laws well, you are still dead in your sin, obedience to any law is not a factor. All Jews broke the law, be it by the letter or even the spirit of the law, all failed. The law amplifies the fundamental problem we all have, the law provides no cure whatsoever.
God judges people according to His righteous standard and His Law instructs us how to live according to that standard, so if we are not under God's Law, then we have no obligation to live according to God's righteous standard, and thus God would have no grounds to judge us according to it. According to John 5:46, Jesus said that Moses wrote about him, according to Luke 24:27, Jesus began with Moses and the Prophets interpreting to them all the things in Scripture concerning himself, according to Hebrews 10:7, the volume of the scroll is written about Jesus, so it is all about believe in him. In Philippians 3:8, Paul had been obeying the Law without having a focus on growing in a relationship with Christ, so he counted it as rubbish because he had completely missed the whole point of obeying the Law. When we fail to obey a law, then that means that we need to repent by faith. Faith is key to everything in the Bible and it not like God suddenly decided to value faith in the NT, but rather faith is always associate with a willingness to obey God's will, and it is faith that makes the difference, not the obedience to God's will.
These ten cities including Sodom were no different really to any other cities in the world.
All cities are fallen entities. God could destroy them anyway, regardless of whether they had the law or not. I can guarantee that Sodom and Gomorrah did not have the law of Moses. Sodom and Gomorrah did not need to be circumcised either.
If Sodom was under God's Law, then they had an obligation to refrain from being wicked, but if they were not under God's Law, then they had no obligation to refrain from being wicked and God would have been unjust to punish them for that reason.
Where in the scripture does it say that these cities were destroyed because they broke the ten commandments?
I didn't say anything about them being destroyed because they broke the Ten Commandments.
At last you are right on this statement. Note, the Gentiles have not agreed to obey everything that Moses said!
Gentiles who chose to become circumcised were becoming Jewish proselytes and agreeing to live as Jews, who agreed at Sinai to do everything Moses said, which included all of their oral laws. This is what Paul was referring to in Galatians 5:3 when he said that anyone who allowed themselves to become circumcised was obligating themselves to obey the whole law. The circumcision group would not have taught Gentiles to obey a law without teaching them all of their traditions for how they taught to keep it correctly.