Parts of Speech

yonah_mishael

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What does it mean when the 'part of speech' of a Hebrew word
is 'feminine'?

(Ran across a teaching online that claimed the 'feminine' word
'ruwach' makes the Spirit of God, female.)

The word רוח (ruach) is feminine. Does this mean that God's spirit is feminine? No, it means that the word is grammatically feminine. In the Tanakh, the spirit of God is not a separate person from God. It is the presence of God and the force that emanates from that presence, which brings inspiration and communion with the Eternal.

Your issue should come to the NT, which uses the Greek word πνεῦμα (which is neuter) to refer to the spirit of God. Is there a disagreement between the identities of the spirit? Of course not. It's just a different language, which uses a different grammatical gender for that specific word. It has nothing to do with "male" or "female." There is no gender to the spirit of God (or any other spirit, as far as I know).
 
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yonah_mishael

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Yonah Mishael,

Thank you for responding... I thought as much. What does it mean
when a word is 'feminine' or 'masculine'?

I assume you know something about Greek, right? Your username is Greek. It's the word χάρις, which is feminine.

Most languages in the world have what's called "grammatical gender". All nouns belong to one of the genders. In Greek there are three - masculine (like ὁ οἶκος ho oikos "the house"), feminine (like ἡ οἰκία he oikia "the house") and neuter (like τὸ ὄνομα to onoma "the name"). In Hebrew there is only masculine (like שולחן shulchan "table") and feminine (like כוס kos "cup").

With grammatical gender, there's no rhyme or reason. It's just up to the language itself. In Spanish, for example, the word for "table" is mesa, which is feminine. In German, the word for "table" is Tisch, which is masculine. In Hebrew, the word for "table" is שולחן shulchan, which is masculine. In Greek, the word for "table" is τράπεζα trapedza, which is feminine. You can't know a word's gender without learning the language and its rules for gender marking.

English doesn't really have grammatical gender. Anything that isn't naturally gender-identified is just classified as neuter - "it".
 
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Catherineanne

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What does it mean when the 'part of speech' of a Hebrew word
is 'feminine'?

(Ran across a teaching online that claimed the 'feminine' word
'ruwach' makes the Spirit of God, female.)

Temples are pretty well always feminine in any ancient language. So is the Church, for that matter; she is the Bride of Christ.

Which is why, incidentally, religions tend to prefer their priests to be male. And the original symbolism of that I leave for people to work out for themselves, in case there are children around anywhere. :)

Meanwhile, gender in language is not the same thing as sexuality. In English, man is masculine, woman is feminine and child is neuter. Not because the child does not have sexuality, but because neuter denotes a non specific gender term. Ships and most countries (not Germany; that is a 'he'; the Fatherland) remain feminine by convention, but using 'she' for these is becoming increasingly outdated, and is likely to disappear completely very soon. Non native speakers may be completely unaware of such usage.

The Spirit of God can be 'it', 'he' or 'she', but it would be a mistake to regard him/her as exclusively either male or female. As with God himself, and indeed Christ, the Spirit contains both male and female.
 
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Nooj

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Just to expand on that, grammatical gender doesn't really have anything to do with biological sex. Just because a word is 'feminine' doesn't mean it has anything to do with females, and vice versa. There are languages that have more than three genders, for example Swahili has 18. Does that mean Swahili speakers think there are 18 sexes?

By no means. Grammatical 'gender' is just a linguistic term. If you want, you can just replace it with 'word group 1' and 'word group 2' or something like that.
 
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