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Sorry to backtrack, but do we know when the West began using azymes? I was actually looking just now for an Armenian source I once read that contained pre-Chalcedon quotes confirming the Armenian use of unleavened bread as being from before the schism, and while I couldn't find it, I did find this book that seems to suggest (at least from its blurb) that the Eastern Orthodox critique of the Latin West for using azymes grew out of the earlier Byzantine critique of the Armenians as heretics, but I can't tell from how it is phrased there whether it is suggesting that before that time (c. 11th century) the Latins weren't known to have used azymes. So I'm wondering if this is one of those things like the sign of the cross where the West used to do it the 'Byzantine' way but then switched at some point, or if the West used azymes long before the Chalcedonians' eventual schism from each other around that time. Can someone clarify for me, please?
According to the work of Father Jungman in his book "The Mass of the Roman Rite: Its Origins and Development," unleavened bread first appeared in the 9th century by means of various ordinances, but it didn't become accepted by the Roman Church in toto until a bit after the Great Schism. He argues that the positions of those who hold that the Western Church has always used unleavened bread is not a tenable or historical position to hold.
However, there are some who disagree. Jean Mabillon, a 16th century Benedictine scholar, as well as Thomas Aquinas, argue the West has always used unleavened bread. Thomas Aquinas goes so far as to say that the East originally used unleavened bread and switched to leavened bread because there was a Judaizing heresy in one region which spread to the other Eastern Churches.
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