Judgement has indeed taken place before He returns.
Revelation 22
Berean Study Bible
“Behold, I am coming soon, and My reward is with Me, to give to each one according to what he has done.
1st resurrection of the saved (receive eternal life and taken to heaven) .... and then later the 2nd resurrection of the lost (do not receive eternal life) and are destroyed.
When the second resurrection happens (the saved are protected in the city that descends to earth from heaven) the lost are then resurrected .... at that point is when ALL (at the same time) will see Him (even those who pierced Him).
Revelation 1:7
Berean Study Bible
Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him—
even those who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. So shall it be! Amen.
IMO, some of you maybe need to switch to Amil. Because some of the stuff you are proposing couldn't possibly fit Premil, but might fit Amil. Revelation 1:7 is meaning the 2nd coming at the end of this age, and not a thousand years after the 2nd coming instead.
Per mainstream Amil they would have this event occurring after the thousand years just like you do. Per mainstream Premil they would have this event occurring before the thousand years.
Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
Revelation 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.
This seems straightforward to me. satan was initially deceiving the nations, so he is then bodily seized and cast into the pit for a thousand years. This indicates that if he is on earth when he is seized, then cast into something, this something has to be below the earth's surface, obviously. This also debunks some Amil views, since some Amils claim it is the surface of the earth that is meaning the pit. The fact an angel has to come down from heaven first, obviously indicates that is because this is where satan is presently dwelling. Obviously, this is meaning after the war in heaven and that he has been cast to the earth. And the fact satan is already on the earth, it makes zero sense this angel would be casting him into somewhere he already is.
While satan is in the pit, not one single person is being deceived by him whatsoever. This is why, when he is loosed from the pit, he goes out to deceive the nations. You don't deceive someone already deceived, you deceive someone not already deceived. During the thousand years not one single survivor of the nations which came against Jerusalem will any longer be deceived, the fact Christ and His immortal saints would be governing the planet at the time. Everyone alive during the thousand years are fully aware that there is a God, and that He exists, the fact God would be dwelling among them via Christ.
The same thing basically happened in satan's case. Initially satan was in God's presence and was in good standing at the time, thus satan knew without a doubt that there is a God and that He exists. Yet he still rebelled, regardless. They say history repeats itself. It looks like that is exactly what it does when survivors from the nations are in God's presence, thus they undeniably know He exists, but just like satan, they end up rebelling against Him, regardless. Apparently, satan deceived angels when he initially rebelled, and after the thousand years, instead of deceiving angels that have literally been in God's presence, this time around he deceives humans who have literally been in God's presence. Sounds like history repeating itself to me.
And assuming I'm on the right track here, this is yet another reason why there are two resurrections seen in Revelation 20, and that there is a gap of a thousand years or more between them, and that both resurrections have to be the same type of resurrection, that being a bodily one. Amils make zero sense when they insist the first resurrection is spiritual, but the final resurrection is bodily. Revelation 20 shows that there is a gap between the two resurrections that were brought up in the OP. Common sense alone tells you there has to be gap of some kind, so why not a thousand year gap?