MJ Only One GOD and One LORD (cont.)

[AbbaLove]

Psalm 110:1 KJV
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Psalm 110:1 (Hebrew Interlinear Bible translation)
יְהוָה ieue (Yahweh), לַאדֹנִי l·adn·i (to·lord-of·me)

Would a better translation be ... "YHWH said unto my LORD ... ."​

1 Corinthians 8:5-6 KJV, CJB
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by Him. (KJV)
5 For even if there are so-called “gods,” either in heaven or on earth — as in fact there are “gods” and “lords” galore —
6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom all things come and for whom we exist; and one Lord, Yeshua the Messiah, through whom were created all things and through whom we have our being. (CJB)

The Apostle Paul's ( Sha'ul ha-Tarsi) choice of words "and we in Him"(YHWH) "and we by Him"(Yeshua) offers an intriguing distinction between the Father and Son. So, what exactly does Paul mean by "we in Him" (YHWH) as opposed to "we by Him" (Yeshua) ??

Note: I really don't have any insight as to what Paul means although i do understand that gadar perets has made some good points as well as making it apparent that the best choice of words and the importance of capitalizing some/all letters (e.g. GOD ~ LORD) to emphasize that the Father and Son are One.

 

[smithed64]

1 Corinthians 8:5-6 KJV, CJB
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by Him. (KJV)
5 For even if there are so-called “gods,” either in heaven or on earth — as in fact there are “gods” and “lords” galore —
6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom all things come and for whom we exist; and one Lord, Yeshua the Messiah, through whom were created all things and through whom we have our being. (CJB)

He explains it in verse 6.

One God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in Him.

God is the father is the creator of all things, even us. Remember Paul is speaking to those who worship false god or gods. He is telling them that the true and only God, is our father and the creator of all things. Even us.

And there is Jesus Christ one Lord, through Him all things were created also and through whom we have our being.

Because of Christ crucified, we have our eternal life through Him and because of Him. Everything thing we are is because of Him and we live to be like Him. Our very fabric of our being should be Him, everything we say, do, think, act, and breath should be Him. We die to self and live in Christ. By Him and him alone.

 

[visionary]

Yep... one Lord, Yeshua the Messiah, through whom were created all things and through whom we have our being.

 

[gadar perets]

Psalm 110:1 KJV
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Psalm 110:1 (Hebrew Interlinear Bible translation)
יְהוָה ieue (Yahweh), לַאדֹנִי l·adn·i (to·lord-of·me)

Would a better translation be ... "YHWH said unto my LORD ... ."​

That is a terrible translation since the Hebrew text does not have the Tetragrammaton where you have "LORD". The Hebrew "adoni" means "my Lord."​

 

[danny ski]

That is a terrible translation since the Hebrew text does not have the Tetragrammaton where you have "LORD". The Hebrew "adoni" means "my Lord."​

Are you sure about that?

 

[gadar perets]

Are you sure about that?

Yes.

Psa 110:1 לדודH1732 of David. מזמורH4210 A Psalm נאםH5002 said יהוהH3068 The LORD לאדניH113 unto my Lord, שׁבH3427 Sit לימיניH3225 thou at my right hand, עדH5704 until אשׁיתH7896 I make איביךH341 thine enemies הדםH1916 thy footstool. לרגליך׃H7272 thy footstool.​

I don't know why this verse pasted backwards, but just pretend it reads from right to left. The verse reads "YHWH said unto my adoni", not "YHWH said unto my LORD." "LORD" is only a man-made substitute for יהוה. For the verse to read as AbbaLove suggests, there must be two Tetragrammatons in the Hebrew.

 

[visionary]

Yes.

Psa 110:1 לדודH1732 of David. מזמורH4210 A Psalm נאםH5002 said יהוהH3068 The LORD לאדניH113 unto my Lord, שׁבH3427 Sit לימיניH3225 thou at my right hand, עדH5704 until אשׁיתH7896 I make איביךH341 thine enemies הדםH1916 thy footstool. לרגליך׃H7272 thy footstool.​

I don't know why this verse pasted backwards, but just pretend it reads from right to left. The verse reads "YHWH said unto my adoni", not "YHWH said unto my LORD." "LORD" is only a man-made substitute for יהוה. For the verse to read as AbbaLove suggests, there must be two Tetragrammatons in the Hebrew.

You don't know Hebrew is from left to right?

 

[gadar perets]

You don't know Hebrew is from left to right?

You don't know Hebrew is from right to left?

 

[visionary]

You don't know Hebrew is from right to left?

Dyslexic... lol.. nice catch

 

[Dkh587]

Yes.

Psa 110:1 לדודH1732 of David. מזמורH4210 A Psalm נאםH5002 said יהוהH3068 The LORD לאדניH113 unto my Lord, שׁבH3427 Sit לימיניH3225 thou at my right hand, עדH5704 until אשׁיתH7896 I make איביךH341 thine enemies הדםH1916 thy footstool. לרגליך׃H7272 thy footstool.​

I don't know why this verse pasted backwards, but just pretend it reads from right to left. The verse reads "YHWH said unto my adoni", not "YHWH said unto my LORD." "LORD" is only a man-made substitute for יהוה. For the verse to read as AbbaLove suggests, there must be two Tetragrammatons in the Hebrew.

Some speculate that the Masorites replaced YHWH in this verse with Adonai. It's definitely a Messianic prophecy either way

If it contained YHWH, instead of Adonai, it would read "YHWH said to YHWH..."

 

[Aryeh Jay]

.

 

[AbbaLove]

Because you are posting English and Hebrew together.

Yah·weh | יְהוָ֨ה | The LORD | a·ḏō·nî, (said) לַֽאדֹנִ֗י | to my Lord ... .
( http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110-1.htm )

Shouldn't all Hebrew-to-English interlinear translations of Psalm 110:1 correctly read either: "GOD" or "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" instead of "The LORD" being יְהוָ֨ה is Hebrew for YeHoVaH/YaHWeH (GOD).

Being that both David and Paul are saying that YHWH is God and Mashiach Yeshua is Lord then why is it that so many English Bibles translate Yahweh/Jehovah as LORD|Lord and Yeshua/Jesus as "Lord" or as "lord" when even aristocrats would never be referred to as "lord" ...

Lord is an appellation for a person or deity who has authority, control, or power over others acting like a master, a chief, or a ruler.

But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by Him. (1 Corinthians 8:6)​

 

[Aryeh Jay]

.

 

[danny ski]

Yes.

Psa 110:1 לדודH1732 of David. מזמורH4210 A Psalm נאםH5002 said יהוהH3068 The LORD לאדניH113 unto my Lord, שׁבH3427 Sit לימיניH3225 thou at my right hand, עדH5704 until אשׁיתH7896 I make איביךH341 thine enemies הדםH1916 thy footstool. לרגליך׃H7272 thy footstool.​

I don't know why this verse pasted backwards, but just pretend it reads from right to left. The verse reads "YHWH said unto my adoni", not "YHWH said unto my LORD." "LORD" is only a man-made substitute for יהוה. For the verse to read as AbbaLove suggests, there must be two Tetragrammatons in the Hebrew.

No. The text uses YHWH which is translated as LORD. Hebrew does not use capital letters. The second lord is adoni- which is capitalized arbitrarily, for no good reason.

 

[gadar perets]

No. The text uses YHWH which is translated as LORD. Hebrew does not use capital letters. The second lord is adoni- which is capitalized arbitrarily, for no good reason.

That is what I said. Why are you saying "No"?

 

[gadar perets]

Yah·weh | יְהוָ֨ה | The LORD | a·ḏō·nî, (said) לַֽאדֹנִ֗י | to my Lord ... .
( http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110-1.htm )

Shouldn't all Hebrew-to-English interlinear translations of Psalm 110:1 correctly read either: "GOD" or "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" instead of "The LORD" being יְהוָ֨ה is Hebrew for YeHoVaH/YaHWeH (GOD).

"GOD" is just as bad and erroneous as "the LORD". Both are man-made substitutes for YHWH.

Being that both David and Paul are saying that YHWH is God and Mashiach Yeshua is Lord then why is it that so many English Bibles translate Yahweh/Jehovah as LORD|Lord and Yeshua/Jesus as "Lord" or as "lord" when even aristocrats would never be referred to as "lord" ...

But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by Him. (1 Corinthians 8:6)​

English Bibles that uses "the LORD" in place of YHWH do so because of tradition. If they substitute "Lord" for "YHWH", then they make a bigger mistake than using "the LORD". At least "the LORD" signals to the reader that "YHWH" is the word being translated whereas using "Lord" is a translation of "adon" or "Adonai". "Lord" must be used of the Son when translating "kurios". To use "LORD" instead creates great confusion.

 

[danny ski]

That is what I said. Why are you saying "No"?

You wrote- the Hebrew text does not have Tetragrammaton. It does. Which is why the translation capitalized it. Adoni refers to David which means using capital letters in translation is a mistake.

 

[gadar perets]

You wrote- the Hebrew text does not have Tetragrammaton. It does. Which is why the translation capitalized it. Adoni refers to David which means using capital letters in translation is a mistake.

I said the text does not have the Tetragrammaton where AbbaLove wrote LORD in his OP translation. Reread my posts.

 

[AbbaLove]

I said the text does not have the Tetragrammaton where AbbaLove wrote LORD in his OP translation. Reread my posts.

Finding a preference for the "correct" translation seems to be a matter of religious indoctrination (e.g. KJV translation) ...
Yah·weh | יְהוָ֨ה | The LORD | a·ḏō·nî, לַֽאדֹנִ֗י | to my Lord ... .
( http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110-1.htm )

Psalm 110:1 YLT (more of an unbiased literal translation)
A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: `Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.' (would you have preferred Yahweh or YHWH instead of Jehovah)

What, if any, scriptures in the Tanakh refer to YHWH as adoni or is it a title (Lord) reserved for Mashiach Yeshua.

 

[gadar perets]

Some speculate that the Masorites replaced YHWH in this verse with Adonai. It's definitely a Messianic prophecy either way

If it contained YHWH, instead of Adonai, it would read "YHWH said to YHWH..."

Wishful thinking by those who want to make Messiah into YHWH. Also, Psalm 110:1 does not contain "Adonai", but "adoni" (my lord).