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PittBullMom

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In the book of John, when Mary Magdalene saw Jesus, He said to her-do not touch me for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Later he let *Thomas* touch his wounds.


Why couldn't she touch him? What did it have to do with Him ascending to His Father? And why was *Thomas* allowed to touch His wounds?
 
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~Anastasia~

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In the book of Luke, when Mary Magdalene saw Jesus, He said to her-do not touch me for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Later he let Luke touch his wounds.


Why couldn't she touch him? What did it have to do with Him ascending to His Father? And why was Luke allowed to touch His wounds?

Just following. I had a very similar question the other day, which I haven't asked anyone. I don't think He ascended until the Ascension, so why did he allow touching Himself later, but not at the tomb that morning. I don't know ... ?
 
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GoingByzantine

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I am in no way an expert on this, but I think this question comes down to a matter of translation. The greek word ἅπτου (haptou) was mistranslated in John 20:17 to mean touch, when it likely means "cling"...this correction was made in the Orthodox Study Bible.

There is obviously a big difference between touching and clinging, Jesus likely did not want Mary Magdalene to cling to him since he knew he was going to ascended into heaven shortly thereafter.
 
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~Anastasia~

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I am in no way an expert on this, but I think this question comes down to a matter of translation. The greek word ἅπτου (haptou) was mistranslated in John 20:17 to mean touch, when it likely means "cling"...this correction was made in the Orthodox Study Bible.

There is obviously a big difference between touching and clinging, Jesus likely did not want Mary Magdalene to cling to him since he knew he was going to ascended into heaven shortly thereafter.

I remember reading "cling to" ... I'm not sure if it's in other translations but it's right there in my mind alongside "touch". I wonder if that is the reason - different action?

But He says "I am not yet ascended ..." which almost seems to imply that if He had, it would be ok. I know I'm overlaying an English-speaking understanding in the text when I read it that way though.
 
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GoingByzantine

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I remember reading "cling to" ... I'm not sure if it's in other translations but it's right there in my mind alongside "touch". I wonder if that is the reason - different action?

That's my suspicion, but like I said, I am no expert. :)
 
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~Anastasia~

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That's my suspicion, but like I said, I am no expert. :)
Maybe there is a writing I'm not aware of from the early Church that explains it. Maybe someone will know. :)

You may be right though. :)
 
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Soyeong

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In the book of Luke, when Mary Magdalene saw Jesus, He said to her-do not touch me for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Later he let Luke touch his wounds.


Why couldn't she touch him? What did it have to do with Him ascending to His Father? And why was Luke allowed to touch His wounds?

It is likely that Mary Magdalene was unclean, so Jesus had some motivation not to be touched by someone who was unclean, perhaps because he had not yet ascended to the altar to make atonement for the sins of the people, and this is what happened in between then and when he appeared before his disciples.
 
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Radagast

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I am in no way an expert on this, but I think this question comes down to a matter of translation. The greek word ἅπτου (haptou) was mistranslated in John 20:17 to mean touch, when it likely means "cling"...this correction was made in the Orthodox Study Bible.

Indeed. Thus the NIV has "Do not hold on to me," the NKJV and ESV have "Do not cling to me," the NASB has "Stop clinging to me," and the NABRE has "Stop holding on to me."

Mary Magdalene was an emotional woman: she was probably holding onto Jesus' feet so tightly that that He couldn't move.

Icons of Mary Magdalene almost always show her not touching Jesus, but I believe this reflects a misunderstanding of the ancient Greek verb ἅπτομαι, which has changed its meaning a little over the centuries. The form of the verb in the original Greek also suggests an ongoing action ("Stop clinging to me").

9cc33bb441ef8dfd01730dda2a5d447c--mary-magdalene-orthodox-icons.jpg


Tissot captures the intensity of the emotion, I think, but also misunderstands the verb:

420px-Brooklyn_Museum_-_Touch_Me_Not_%28Noli_me_tangere%29_-_James_Tissot.jpg
 
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prodromos

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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Actually, I think this is highly unlikely.

On this festival in the morning of the first day of the week (on the morrow after the Sabbath of Passover...Sunday morning), the the cohen gadol (high priest) waved the barley sheaf in the Temple. If Yeshua (now our High Priest) was the Yom HaBikkurim offering (this was the firstfruits barley harvest offering and Yeshua was the firstfruits of them that slept 1 Corinthians 15:20-23 ), He would have ascended ( John 20:17 ) to present Himself to The Father after His Resurrection. When we celebrate Pascha, we are celebrating the fulfillment of Yom HaBikkurim in Yeshua's Resurrection. 50 days later we celebrate Pentecost, the fulfillment of the feast of Shavuot.
 
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Radagast

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I don't think this quite qualifies as the Ultimate Question of Life, the Universe and Everything. Close, but not quite :)

It's an interesting question, although I put my 2c in with some trepidation.

It does seem to be a topic where modern Orthodox, Catholic, and Protestant Bible translations are a little at variance with traditional iconography. I'd really appreciate it if someone with an understanding of icons would explain the traditional view.
 
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ArmyMatt

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In the book of Luke, when Mary Magdalene saw Jesus, He said to her-do not touch me for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Later he let Luke touch his wounds.


Why couldn't she touch him? What did it have to do with Him ascending to His Father? And why was Luke allowed to touch His wounds?

I have always heard it meant cling to me. the Apostles touching of Christ was to confirm the Resurrection, whereas Mary already believed when He called her by name.
 
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PittBullMom

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Ok I understand the translation makes a world of difference. Makes sense. So...let's stick with cling. Even then, what did him not ascending yet have to do with her clinging?

Out of all the different reactions people had upon seeing Jesus resurrected, why was only she rebuked (if thats the right word)
 
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Radagast

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Ok I understand the translation makes a world of difference. Makes sense. So...let's stick with cling. Even then, what did him not ascending yet have to do with her clinging?

Out of all the different reactions people had upon seeing Jesus resurrected, why was only she rebuked (if thats the right word)

I don't think "rebuke" is the right word -- the rest of the passage suggests great gentleness on Jesus' part.

If I had to guess, I'd have to say (1) Jesus had things to do, (2) Mary had things to do, and most of all (3) the kind of contact with Jesus that Mary needed was not physical touch, but the spiritual contact that would become possible after the Ascension.
 
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Soyeong

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Actually, I think this is highly unlikely.

If she had touched Jesus or been inside of the tomb while he was dead, then she was unclean, which I do not see as being unlikely in the slightest.
 
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PittBullMom

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Ok I'm not even in the right book lol. It was John not Luke.

Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
John 20:17 KJV
John 20:17; Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

In the same sentence he said "for I am not yet ascended". That was the reason HE gave. He said it was because he had not yet ascended.

We could guess being busy or unclean but thats not what he said. I'm not looking for the reason he said don't cling or touch, I want to know the connection with going to the Father.
 
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Radagast

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We could guess being busy or unclean but thats not what he said. I'm not looking for the reason he said don't cling or touch, I want to know the connection with going to the Father.

The KJV is wrong here -- use the NIV, ESV, NKJV, Orthodox Study Bible, or NABRE.

And like I said, the best explanation is that the kind of contact with Jesus that Mary needed was not physical touch, but the spiritual contact that would become possible after the Ascension.
 
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