- Jul 9, 2002
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Hi brothers!
I was in the eschatology forum and was confronted with a question I wasn't really able to answer on my own. It has to do with the interpretation of what "this generation" means in Matthew 24:34. Here is the verse in it's immediate context:
I have looked into this, and found several different answers, but I am unsure as to which one is the correct view. Here are the views I have considered:
1) The generation that sees "all these things" take place, as opposed to just the first part. In this view, "this generation" would be the future generation that witnesses the false Christs, persecution, the wars, the earthquakes, the abomination that causes desolation, and the destruction of the temple (a yet future one). "This generation" would see the coming of Christ described in Matthew 24:30-31 and elsewhere in Scripture.
Potential problems with view #1:
Why didn't Jesus say "that generation" instead? Also, why did Jesus leave the text open to confusion with the destruction of the temple in 70 AD? Many of these prophecies were at least partially fulfilled in 70 AD, yet Christ did not return.
2) Generation is improperly translated, and should read "people" or "race". In this view, Jesus is saying that the people of Israeli descent would not disappear from earth until the coming of Christ. Jesus was referring to the people of Israel, not any specific generation.
Potential problems:
Why does every translation I found translate genea as "generation" in this passage? Also, if this view is correct, it states that the Israeli people will not be wiped out "until" (up to this point, but not necessarily after) Christ's coming... but we know from other Scripture that the Israeli people will be ascendant, and greatly blessed, immediately after Christ's return. The use of the word "until" is problematic for this view, and Jesus could have just as easily said "before" instead, clearing up any possible confusion.
3) Matthew 24 has a near and far fulfillment. This view would see Jesus' prophecy here as being partially fulfilled in 70 AD, and then completely fulfilled just before His return. This would be in line with the way prophecy was fulfilled in the destruction of Babylon (Isaiah, Jeremiah, etc.), where Babylon fell to the Medo-Persians as predicted, yet many aspects of the prophecy were not fulfilled in history, and await their full completion in the future (Revelation 18).
Potential problems:
This is complicated, and very difficult to understand. And it still leaves open the question of why Jesus said what He said in verse 34. Why make it appear, as He did in verse 34, that all these things would take place in one generation? Did Jesus not know that there would be a time gap of nearly 2000 years between the near and far fulfillment? Also, what does this say about how we should interpret other NT prophecy, like the book of Revelation? Could there be further gaps of time in the fulfillment of Revelation's prophecies?
This is where I am at right now... uncertain. If anyone has some further insight into this passage, please feel free to post it. Also, if you have answers to my potential problems with any of the 3 views, definitely share them!
God bless you all, and thanks in advance for your replies;
Michael
I was in the eschatology forum and was confronted with a question I wasn't really able to answer on my own. It has to do with the interpretation of what "this generation" means in Matthew 24:34. Here is the verse in it's immediate context:
Matthew 24:32-35 NASB "Now learn the parable from the fig tree: when its branch has already become tender and puts forth its leaves, you know that summer is near; (33) so, you too, when you see all these things, recognize that He is near, right at the door. (34) "Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place. (35) "Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away.
I have looked into this, and found several different answers, but I am unsure as to which one is the correct view. Here are the views I have considered:
1) The generation that sees "all these things" take place, as opposed to just the first part. In this view, "this generation" would be the future generation that witnesses the false Christs, persecution, the wars, the earthquakes, the abomination that causes desolation, and the destruction of the temple (a yet future one). "This generation" would see the coming of Christ described in Matthew 24:30-31 and elsewhere in Scripture.
Potential problems with view #1:
Why didn't Jesus say "that generation" instead? Also, why did Jesus leave the text open to confusion with the destruction of the temple in 70 AD? Many of these prophecies were at least partially fulfilled in 70 AD, yet Christ did not return.
2) Generation is improperly translated, and should read "people" or "race". In this view, Jesus is saying that the people of Israeli descent would not disappear from earth until the coming of Christ. Jesus was referring to the people of Israel, not any specific generation.
Potential problems:
Why does every translation I found translate genea as "generation" in this passage? Also, if this view is correct, it states that the Israeli people will not be wiped out "until" (up to this point, but not necessarily after) Christ's coming... but we know from other Scripture that the Israeli people will be ascendant, and greatly blessed, immediately after Christ's return. The use of the word "until" is problematic for this view, and Jesus could have just as easily said "before" instead, clearing up any possible confusion.
3) Matthew 24 has a near and far fulfillment. This view would see Jesus' prophecy here as being partially fulfilled in 70 AD, and then completely fulfilled just before His return. This would be in line with the way prophecy was fulfilled in the destruction of Babylon (Isaiah, Jeremiah, etc.), where Babylon fell to the Medo-Persians as predicted, yet many aspects of the prophecy were not fulfilled in history, and await their full completion in the future (Revelation 18).
Potential problems:
This is complicated, and very difficult to understand. And it still leaves open the question of why Jesus said what He said in verse 34. Why make it appear, as He did in verse 34, that all these things would take place in one generation? Did Jesus not know that there would be a time gap of nearly 2000 years between the near and far fulfillment? Also, what does this say about how we should interpret other NT prophecy, like the book of Revelation? Could there be further gaps of time in the fulfillment of Revelation's prophecies?
This is where I am at right now... uncertain. If anyone has some further insight into this passage, please feel free to post it. Also, if you have answers to my potential problems with any of the 3 views, definitely share them!
God bless you all, and thanks in advance for your replies;
Michael