Originally posted by berean_315
I actually have read part of the book. Al-Khadi quotes from obscure authors and takes verses out of context. He makes the following statement about the Christian God: "God is three gods merged into one God." By making such a statement Al-Khadi shows his ignorance concerning the Christian concept of the Trinity.
In actuality, what he is doing is simply saying that the Trinity, as defined by christians, is a logical impossibility. Therefore, the only remaining answer is that for the christians, "god is three gods merged into one".
Earlier you tried to tell us that "the same Jesus cannot both be God, and not-God". You justified it by referring to something you called the "universal law of non-contradiction". What Al-Khadi is saying here is exactly the same thing: the same God cannot be both three people and one people.
Now mind you, I don't accept either the christian or the muslim religious viewpoint here. However, for you to invoke some principle of logical consistency in one situation, and then deny someone else to use that
exact same principle when examining YOUR religion - well, that's a double standard. If you can do it, then so can Al-Khadi.
Al-Khadi also cites the Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation as authoritative in trying to lend support to his biased understanding of John 1:1. In resorting to using the work of a cult, this alone gives one reason not to take anything written in his book seriously.
One might also make the same charge against christianity, in its evaluation of Islam. From the viewpoint of islam, christianity is a rebellious cult. Therefore criticisms of islam which come from christians can be immediately discounted. Right?
You also say, "in resorting to using the work of a cult"... but you do not know why Al-Khadi used the JW translation. Neither do I, for that matter. But your tone and attitude indicate that you believe he did it on purpose. But for all you know, it might have been the only bible he had handy. You might want to check your attitude, and avoid jumping to conclusions here about someone else's motivations.
However, the real question here is on the actual verse used, and what is the point that Al-Khadi was trying to extract, by using that verse. Does the JWNWT version differ substantially in its translation, than any other version?
The Qur'an itself teaches that the Bible is the truth and standard by which the Qur'an is to be judeged:
If thou wert in doubt As to what We have revealed Unto thee [Qur'an], then ask those Who have been reading The Book [Bible] from before thee: The Truth hath indeed come to thee from thy Lord: So be in no wise Of those in doubt. Nor be those who reject The Signs of God, Or thou shalt be of those Who perish.--Sura 10:94 and 95
Absolutely incorrect.
In the first place, your claim is absurd. Why would the Koran admit that it should be judged by a different holy book? What kind of sense would that make? Even if you are correct and the Koran is just a false religion, how stupid do you think that muslims would be, to retain such a damaging verse that basically says, "the Bible is how you judge whether the Koran is correct or not." That would be totally self-defeating for them. Muslims may be a lot of things, but stupid isn't one of them.
In the second place, just as christians insist that any verses should be read spiritually, and with the proper discernment and "dividing the word", the muslims insist on the same thing. Since you are not muslim, you are not capable of spiritually discerning what this verse means, and you should therefore consult a muslim or an islamic commentary to find out - which is the same advice you would give anyone wanting to know about a new testament verse.
In the third place, there are other suras in the Koran that explicitly say that the jews and christians have twisted and perverted the words delivered to them by Allah, which are in their holy books. And for that reason, the revelations that the jews and christians have is imperfect and tainted by human desire, and does not reflect what they were originally told by Allah. Why is that important? Because from that fact, you can draw two pieces of information about your claim that
"The Qur'an itself teaches that the Bible is the truth and standard by which the Qur'an is to be judeged"
- the claim that the Koran itself says to judge its truthfulness by the standard of the Bible is a nonsensical claim; the Koran wouldn't say that, while also saying that the jews and christians had twisted the words of revelation given to them, thus indicating that their revelations were inferior and tainted by sinful editing; and
- the website from which you drew this original claim was either unaware of these other suras, or chose to ignore them. In either case, it illustrates that the website cannot be trusted to accurately portray islamic claims and beliefs
And in the fourth place - your interpretation is not what this sura means; you have taken it out of context. I am assuming that you have merely cut and pasted this from some christian website, so I'll give you the context that you are missing. In this chapter 10, for the preceding 25 or so verses, Allah has just finished reciting the story of Noah and the Ark. Then, it was followed by the story of Moses and the Pharaoh, and how the children of Israel left Egypt, and were pursued into the wilderness. The Koran is saying, "if you doubt this tale of Noah, the ark, Moses, Pharoah, and the children of Israel, consult those who read the Book." But that is NOT the same as saying, "judge
everything in Islam and the Koran by the Bible". It's intended only to give supporting evidence for two particular storys: that of Noah & the Ark, and that of Moses, Pharoah, and the children of Israel in the wilderness.
The "Answering Islam" website at provides Christian rebuttals to wh...ou.
Just a thought....... :rolleyes:
