Yet after all this time and you still haven't disputed that Satan ultimately fulfills everything written about Lucifer which proves what's written about him is fulfilled by satan.
Let's pretend the Latin text had no influence on english translations. If true the infamous verse 12 would read something like "How you have fallen from heaven, morning star, son of dawn!"
Lucifer as an English word is a proper noun for Satan. I have mentioned before that it is a misnomer as a "tin can" is but by using the word Lucifer then the word is not being translated it is being interpreted.
Lucifer was the word used in the Latin text and in that example it was a translation because "lucifer" happens to be proper latin and it was used to translate the word "heylel" into the best represented word in Latin. Lucifer is a good translation when reading the latin text. (BTW Jesus is also called "lucifer" in the latin text)
When we use it in English it does not assume the Latin meaning instead takes on it's own meaning as a synonym for Satan. So what happens when it is used in English is we really mean Satan and nothing else.
Why even use the word "lucifer" and just flat out say Satan. We don't do this because it is irresponsible. The KJV had it's reasons for putting the word "lucifer" in their translation forever etching it into English however what they have done is over interpreted the text and have pushed a popular interpretation, one that can't help but influence how people approach the text today.
Now you start a discussion about the overall interpretation of the text and you continue to use the word "Lucifer". This can tell me a few things about what your are claiming.
1. it is supported by a irresponsible translation of the word "heylel"
2. it has a strong bias
3. it is insufficiently researched
4. it preys upon the ignorant
A more responsible translation is "morning star". So let's repose your question and substitute "lucifer" with "the morning star"
Yet after all this time and you still haven't disputed that Satan ultimately fulfills everything written about [the morning star] which proves what's written about him is fulfilled by satan.
It doesn't quite have the same implications to it does it? The first statement basically is a question of "Does Lucifer = Satan?" The answer of course is "yes" because that's what the english word means but it is irresponsibly worded. The altered question is "Does the morning star = Satan?" and this is a question more worthy of discussion as it is responsibly worded and does not assume the interpretation but allows discussion of the interpretation. Perhaps an even more specific question would be "Does the morning star in Isaiah 14 refer to Satan?" It's not my concern that the term "morning star" creates some ambiguity with references to Jesus. This is how the text presents itself naturally and is how we should represent it and is how we should discuss it.
I have defended my position but you are only reading what you see and responding to what you want. I don't wish to repeat myself or further engage this conversion until the bias is removed and we can approach this from a responsible base.