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1 Corinthians 11:6 For, if a woman doth not veil herself, let her also be shorn; but, if it were a shame in a woman to be shorn or shaven, let her be veiled.
I take "veil' to mean 'uncovered'. in this verse. I do not take it to mean specifically a piece of garment called a veil. So that means it is saying that a woman who's head is uncovered then let her shave it all off. It is also saying that if a womans head being shaved is shameful, then she should veil or cover her head. .
Short hair is no covering , it does not veil her head, only long hair or some garment veils her head.
God gave women long hair for a veil vs. 15. so i see these verses as saying that a woman should either veil her head with her god given hair, or with some garment, and if she doesn't, then she should whack it all off and suffer the shame associated with it. That's my understanding.
Most societys even our society in times past had a different view about womens hair than our society does today. I remember seeing some film about women nazi colaborators being punished after the war, in italy I think , and the partisans punished these women by shaving thier heads because to them is was like the most utterly shameful thing they could do to a woman. And the women who had thier heads shaved immediately wrapped their heads with scarfs because their shame of having shaved heads was so horrendous to them.
That's what verse 6 is hitting at. it's saying a woman praying with her head uncovered is utterly shameful, as shameful as a woman having her head shaved.
4 Every man, praying, or prophesying, having anything upon his head, putteth to shame his head; 5 But, every woman, praying, or prophesying, with her head, unveiled, putteth to shame her head,--for it is, one and the same, with her having been shaven.
So verse 5 is saying that a woman with her head uncovered with no long hair (i.e. having short hair) or without some garment covering her head, its the same thing as if she had shaved her head. it's saying short hair is the same thing as a shaved head for a woman, just as shameful.
verse 4 says a man having anything on his head shames his head, verse 5 says a woman with a head unveiled shames her head. So obviously veiled here is use to mean covered, not a specific garment called a veil.
one could also take head to refer to christ, with respect to the man, and head to refer to her husband with respect to the woman. I would imagine there are a lot of husbands out there that feel shamed by their wives short hair cut. I dated a short haired woman years ago and i felt embarrased to be seen with her, it was my natural reaction.
I am not the one who is insisting that a headcovering is a specific garment called a veil. In fact, the Greek text makes no reference to such a garment. It does, however, go to great length to explain why a woman ought to cover her head (an act of her volition) and why a man ought not to cover his head (another act of volition).
Unfortunately, you have not answer the question in my post, to wit:
"So, if I understand you correctly, verse six could be translated as, "For if a woman has short hair or is bald while praying or prophesying, let her have short hair or shave her head, but if it is disgraceful for a woman to have short hair or her head shaved, let her have hair." Is this a fair understanding of what you take this verse to mean?"
A simple yes or no will suffice to answer the question, if you please.
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