The Israelites following the murder of King Gedaliah fled to Egypt and YHWH pronounced a curse on them.
By 250 BCE the Israelites in Egypt were speaking Greek, not Hebrew. At this time the Taanach (Hebrew Bible) was translated into Greek Septuagint for those at Alexandria, Egypt, who spoke and read only Greek.
There are scroll fragments of the Septuagint, where the Name of YHWH the Tetragrammaton is inserted using the Paleo-Hebrew letters. There are historical records detailing that in the original copies of the Septuagint that a space was left and the Name of YHWH was written in Gold Paleo-Hebrew lettters.
There is one scroll fragment where the name of YHWH is transliterated into Greek thus preserving the pronunciation of the Name. Transliteration is where you preserve the pronunciation of a word by writing it in another language example(àìäéí = ELOHIM)so that it sounds like the original.
Later revisions of the Septuagint had the hebrew for Adonay & the Name of YHWH replaced by the greek Kurios and the hebrew for ELOHIM replaced by the greek Theos.
There are also historical records whereby the writer relates that in the early 1st century CE NT assemblies greek copies the Name of YHWH was inserted in Hebrew letters.
It would appear that the curse spread from Egypt and was adopted by Judaism to the point of not pronouncing the name in public and later by placing incorrect vowel points to cause the reader to stutter & pause instead of saying YHWH.
By the time of the writing of the NT (Note: A large number of existing NT manuscripts originated from Alexandria, Egypt
Now I know that "YHWH," which is probably pronounced "YHWH," is the true personal name of the one true EL (English word for ELOHIM). And I know that our language is corrupt. But we have here in the Bible an example of Yahweh's Apostle using a Greek word in reference to him! So, if we want to get a message thru to the world, it seems to me that it would be okay to call YHWH "God," since we have an example of Paul doing just that.
Again a misunderstanding can cause confusion, read carefully:
Paul is correct in using the greek term Theos for the hebrew ELOHIM, since the hebrew ELOHIM is the only term used in Genesis 1 when speaking about the creation. YHWH is not mentioned until after the seventh day in Genesis 2.
Notice that Paul made no direct reference to either The FATHER or to YAHSHUA, all of the discussion was about the UNKNOWN ELOHIM.
So, Paul is not telling us to substitute Titles for the Name of the FATHER or the SON, just like the vision of Peter does not permit us to violate the Laws of Clean and UnClean meats.
(Isa 28:11 KJV) For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
This can apply to those Israelites who have forgotten how to read and write Hebrew, so to them YHWH is speaking with stammering lips and another tongue.
In this chapter YHWH is speaking to Ephraim and unto the remnant of his people. Does Ephraim and the remnant of the people still use Hebrew today?
If for no other reason the argument, for substituing Theos/God for Elohim or Kurios/Lord for YHWH ,would fail simply because the example only occurs the one time and has no other parallel in the NT.
Jeremiah 44:26 Therefore hear ye the word of YHWH, all YAHudah that dwell in the land of Egypt; Behold, I have sworn by my great name, saith YHWH, that my name shall no more be named in the mouth of any man of YAHudah in all the land of Egypt, saying, Adonay YHWH liveth.</B>
By 250 BCE the Israelites in Egypt were speaking Greek, not Hebrew. At this time the Taanach (Hebrew Bible) was translated into Greek Septuagint for those at Alexandria, Egypt, who spoke and read only Greek.
There are scroll fragments of the Septuagint, where the Name of YHWH the Tetragrammaton is inserted using the Paleo-Hebrew letters. There are historical records detailing that in the original copies of the Septuagint that a space was left and the Name of YHWH was written in Gold Paleo-Hebrew lettters.
There is one scroll fragment where the name of YHWH is transliterated into Greek thus preserving the pronunciation of the Name. Transliteration is where you preserve the pronunciation of a word by writing it in another language example(àìäéí = ELOHIM)so that it sounds like the original.
Later revisions of the Septuagint had the hebrew for Adonay & the Name of YHWH replaced by the greek Kurios and the hebrew for ELOHIM replaced by the greek Theos.
There are also historical records whereby the writer relates that in the early 1st century CE NT assemblies greek copies the Name of YHWH was inserted in Hebrew letters.
It would appear that the curse spread from Egypt and was adopted by Judaism to the point of not pronouncing the name in public and later by placing incorrect vowel points to cause the reader to stutter & pause instead of saying YHWH.
By the time of the writing of the NT (Note: A large number of existing NT manuscripts originated from Alexandria, Egypt
Now I know that "YHWH," which is probably pronounced "YHWH," is the true personal name of the one true EL (English word for ELOHIM). And I know that our language is corrupt. But we have here in the Bible an example of Yahweh's Apostle using a Greek word in reference to him! So, if we want to get a message thru to the world, it seems to me that it would be okay to call YHWH "God," since we have an example of Paul doing just that.
Again a misunderstanding can cause confusion, read carefully:
Act 17:23 For as I passed by, and beheld your devotions, I found an altar with this inscription, TO THE UNKNOWN THEOS/ELOHIM. Whom therefore ye ignorantly worship, him declare I unto you.
Act 17:24 THEOS/ELOHIM that made the world and all things therein, seeing that he is Sovereign of heaven and earth, dwelleth not in temples made with hands;
Act 17:24 THEOS/ELOHIM that made the world and all things therein, seeing that he is Sovereign of heaven and earth, dwelleth not in temples made with hands;
Paul is correct in using the greek term Theos for the hebrew ELOHIM, since the hebrew ELOHIM is the only term used in Genesis 1 when speaking about the creation. YHWH is not mentioned until after the seventh day in Genesis 2.
Notice that Paul made no direct reference to either The FATHER or to YAHSHUA, all of the discussion was about the UNKNOWN ELOHIM.
So, Paul is not telling us to substitute Titles for the Name of the FATHER or the SON, just like the vision of Peter does not permit us to violate the Laws of Clean and UnClean meats.
Act 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of YAHSHUA Messiah for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Set Apart Spirit .
Act 4:12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Act 4:12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
(Isa 28:11 KJV) For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
This can apply to those Israelites who have forgotten how to read and write Hebrew, so to them YHWH is speaking with stammering lips and another tongue.
In this chapter YHWH is speaking to Ephraim and unto the remnant of his people. Does Ephraim and the remnant of the people still use Hebrew today?
If for no other reason the argument, for substituing Theos/God for Elohim or Kurios/Lord for YHWH ,would fail simply because the example only occurs the one time and has no other parallel in the NT.