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KJV better then the rest? List your thoughts.

Discussion in 'Non-denominational' started by JohnR7, Feb 20, 2002.

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  1. edjones

    edjones Active Member

    Here are seven (naturally) basic fundamentals that God wants us to know and what the scholars through their opinions and brains try to confuse and make obscure.

    1) There is a Devil and he is primarily interested in what God says!

    2) In deceiving anyone, two-thirds of what the devil says is true!

    3) The devils approach is always critical so that it poses questions!

    4) The devil aims at a man's pride and curiosity to get him to add to, or subtract from, what God said!

    5) His aim is to make man his own "god" so he can deify his own opinions and preferences, thereby becoming his own authority, standing against God's authority.

    6) The devil appeals to impressive vocabularies and educated positions to impress the uneducated with the necessity of getting rid of the Book and replacing it with anything (reliable translations, Hebrew and Greek lexicons, original autographs, the opinions of good, godly men, etc.)!

    7) God reveals nothing to any man because of that man's head knowledge of anything. The key to understanding the Bible, or the Author of the Bible, is a BELIEVING HEART AND A HUMBLE MIND.

    I Corinthians 2:9-14 But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him. But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God. For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God. Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual. But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

    John 20:29b - ...blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

    Or are you one of those scholars who wants to 'see' in order to believe? Funny, though - even if they say they 'see' first - none of them can agree on what they 'see'! There are over 400 modern perversions of the Bible and the list continues to grow. When will they finally 'believe'?
  2. Navigator

    Navigator Pizzagator...

    King James Onlyism - Only the KJV of the bible is inerrant scripture.

    Scholarship Onlyism - I'm not sure of your definition ed, but I don't think it makes any claims on what is inerrant scripture.

    hence trying to compare the two will lead progressively to confusion.

    I do agree that without the Spirit to guide us, people can pervert what Scripture says. Happens all the time...

    Prayers, and Blessings to you.
  3. Wolseley

    Wolseley Beaucoup-Diên-Cai-Dāu

    United States
    Ed, there's no need to shout at the top of your lungs. Sit down, relax, have a beer. Have two. Have three, if you think it'll help.
    [gentle sarcasm mode ON] But Nav, we can't be sure that the Holy Spirit is even around to guide us....after all, He left us to our own devices in 312 when Constantine came on the scene, and didn't bother to show up again until 1517 when He sent Luther to us! Maybe He decided to go on hiatus again, who knows? ;) [gentle sarcasm mode OFF]

    God bless all here,
  4. filosofer

    filosofer Senior Veteran

    Believe what? What do you consider absolute?

    How about believing that

    - we are sinners (Ephesians 2:1-3)
    - our sins deserve God's punishment (Romans 6:23)
    - Jesus Christ is true God (John 20:28) and true Man (1 Tim. 2:5)
    - God sent Jesus Christ to live perfectly according to the law (Matthew 5:17; Heb. 4:15)
    - Jesus Christ died as the perfect sacrifice for all humans (1 John 2:2)
    - God counts as righteous those who believe in Jesus Christ as Savior (Romans 3-4)
    - Christ's righteousness is given to us (Phil. 3:9; 2 Cor. 5:21)
    - people are saved by grace through faith in Jesus Christ (Eph. 2:8-9)
    - everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will receive the inheritance of the Holy Spirit (Ephesians 1:13-14)
    - everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will receive everlasting life (John 3:16; 1 John 5:11-13)
    - the wicked and disobedient will spend eternity in hell/everlasting torment (Matt. 25:31-46)
    - everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will be raised from the dead to receive the fulness of God's promises at the the end of time (1 Cor. 15)
    - ....

    Guess, what, ed? Didn't have to refer once to the KJV. Didn't even have to check to see whether the Greek was "correct."

    Salvation comes through hearing the word. That refers to the spoken word (Romans 10; and especially 1 Thessalonians 2:13). So where was the KJV when the Gospel was being proclaimed through 1,500 years? Was God's perfect Word available through the ages? yep. is it available today? Yep. It has many different forms, but that is God's Word. Powerful even able to divide the spirit and soul.

    Glad I'm not in the prison of KJV Onlyism. Being free in Christ is much better - and the Word of God assures me (and all believers of that).
  5. ZiSunka

    ZiSunka It means 'yellow dog'

    Amen! Like St Paul, I have dtermined to know nothing about anything except Christ--and about His crucifixion!

    Scholars and bickerers may get into pointless arguments, but I just want to share the Good News!
  6. edjones

    edjones Active Member

    They didn't call it the 'Dark Ages' for nothin.
  7. filosofer

    filosofer Senior Veteran

    Can't have it both ways, Ed. Dark Ages (6th - 13th century) are the exact time you claim that the KJV line was preserved perfectly. Which is it?

    And are you calling the Apostles and post-Apostolic Fathers (who knew the Apostles) part of the Dark Ages?
  8. Wolseley

    Wolseley Beaucoup-Diên-Cai-Dāu

    United States
    Um, if I may be permitted to make an annoying observation (it's just the old History Major in me----and a Phi Alpha Theta at that...we're the worst kind), the Dark Ages ran from approximately 476 AD with the deposing of Romulus Augustulus to approximately 1,000 AD with the first developments of the nascent feudal system.

    The King James Version was published in 1611, which isn't even in the Medieval timeframe---it's almost, in fact, post-Renaissance.

    Ergo, a difference of 611 to 1,135 years.

    The era of the Church Fathers ran from Clement of Rome (fl. circa 80 AD) to the death of John Damascene (d. circa 749). Nowhere near 1611.

    Sorry, just had be a pest and throw that in there.....

  9. Me4him

    Me4him New Member

    If I can use "your words" to make a point.

    Mr 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

    To what do you suppose Jesus/God was referring when they said; "GOOD"???

    "all have sinned". (none Prefect)

    Do you see a connection between the word "GOOD" as God used it "in the beginning", and as Jesus used the "SAME WORD" in his day???

    The problem with "modern translations", is that "MEN" pick and chose words that they believe mean the same thing, but are spelled different, and in doing so, they break the connection of that word to other parts of the Bible.

    When you consider that God chose each word, and that "word" has connections throughout the whole Bible, you understand why men are not free to "pick and chose" their own words.

    If God had said the "earth was nice", and Jesus said none was good but God, you would never have seen the connection the word "GOOD" makes between Jesus and God.

    God's word in not "God's word", (written or Physical (Jesus) until you can see "God in his word".
  10. Navigator

    Navigator Pizzagator...

    then using the same word, do you call the KJV 'good'?

    and if you do, and you are using the same criteria that Jesus used (none good but God), have you then made the KJV into God?

    Quite a leap... as is the leap that God chose elizabethean words exclusively to convey his message.

    God communicates with us through his Word, and His strength will be made perfect in our weakness. (1 Cor 12:9) (or the translations weakness... )

  11. Me4him

    Me4him New Member

    Let's turn the question around.

    Why believe that God and all his creation is/was perfect, yet refuse to believe that God can create a "perfect book"???

    "As your faith, so be it unto you"

    "FAITH" is like "Eye glasses", the stronger the "Faith" the "CLEARER" you can "SEE".

    And when you believe you are reading "The best man can come up with", you don't have much "faith" in "those words".

    Your belief that man, down throught the ages/translations, has "preverted" the perfection of God's word denies "God's word".

    God said "HIS WORDS" would never pass away, they're under his "Divine protection", if it had been left up to man, the first generation would have destroyed "God's word" and no generations since would have ever known "The perfect word of God".

    The question still remains, what do you believe about God??

    Is he Perfect, is his creation perfect, is his word perfect??

    Are those words you're reading "God's or man's", can you trust them to be correct, even down to the "S" on words that make them singular or plural??
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