John 3:36 HCSB CSV vs other translation

A_JAY

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I read John 3:36 in my new HCSB and realized that the second part of the verse is significantly different than what I remember it being in NASB [and most others]. It concerned me a little bit wondering about the translator philosophy going into it.

HCSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who refuses to believe in the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

CSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who rejects the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

NASB "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

The greek word for belief seems to have some indications of obedience in it. Do any of you have any thoughts on those two translations vs the consensus that NASB reflects. Does it make any difference when that verse is preached? Thank you.

This is not a KJVO thread!
 

Kenny'sID

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I guess its overly simple to me, in that, even without that scripture, obedience is absolutely part of believing

People seem to think faith only is like an empty box, or just saying we have faith, when, in reality, that box contains all Christ told us we must do. it's all part of faith.
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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I read John 3:36 in my new HCSB and realized that the second part of the verse is significantly different than what I remember it being in NASB [and most others]. It concerned me a little bit wondering about the translator philosophy going into it.

HCSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who refuses to believe in the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

CSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who rejects the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

NASB "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

The greek word for belief seems to have some indications of obedience in it. Do any of you have any thoughts on those two translations vs the consensus that NASB reflects. Does it make any difference when that verse is preached? Thank you.

This is not a KJVO thread!

the English "rejects, refuses, does not obey", in the Greek, is the verb, ἀπειθέω, which means, "to be disobedient; refuse compliance; disobey; not to allow oneself to be persuaded; not to comply with", etc. Hence the different reading. Also, the Greek verb is in the "present, continuance" tense.
 
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paul1149

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As James stresses, true faith will have works. This is the inherent obedience of faith. The Greek word can encapsulate a spectrum of meaning from faith to obedience.

The word is in the Active voice, emphasizing that it is not a passive mental assent that is in question. And Thayer and Vine stress the volitional aspect of the disbelief. It is not a lack of belief due to ignorance that Jesus refers to here, it is intentional disobedience to the Son.

"disbelieve" is the best rendering, implying that the unbeliever has had a full opportunity of believing and has rejected it; - Vine's
It also is in the participial mood - "is disbelieving" - indicating a habitual ongoing condition.
 
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GDL

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Here's a brief from 3 Greek lexicons providing English meanings:

Bauer-Danker, Greek-English Lexicon of the NT (BDAG)

[BDAG] ἀπειθέω
• ἀπειθέω (opp. πείθομαι; s. ἀπείθεια) impf. ἠπείθουν; 1 aor. ἠπείθησα (for ἀπιθέω [Hom.] since Aeschyl., Pla.+) disobey, be disobedient (cp. PYadin 24a, 10 [restored] of refusal); in our lit. disobedience is always toward God, God’s ordinances, or revelation (like Eur., Or. 31; Pla., Leg. 741d; Lucian, Dial. Deor. 8, 1; SIG 736, 40 [92 BC] τὸν δὲ ἀπειθοῦντα ἢ ἀπρεπῶς ἀναστρεφόμενον εἰς τὸ θεῖον μαστιγούντω οἱ ἱεροί; Dt 1:26; 9:23; Josh 5:6; Is 36:5; 63:10; Bar 1:18f). W. dat. of pers. (Num 14:43 κυρίω) τῷ θεῷ (Diod. S. 5, 74, 4 ἀ. τοῖς θεοῖς; Hierocles 24, 473 τῷ θεῷ; Jos., Ant. 9, 249) Ro 11:30, cp. Pol 2:1. τῷ υἱῷ J 3:36.—W. dat. of thing (Diod. S. 5, 71, 5 τοῖς νόμοις) τῇ ἀληθείᾳ Ro 2:8 (Theoph. Ant. 1, 14 p. 92, 5). τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ 1 Pt 4:17. τῷ λόγῳ 2:8; 3:1. τοῖς εἰρημένοις 1 Cl 59:1. τοῖς ἐμοῖς ἐλέγχοις 57:4 (Pr 1:25).—Abs. (Dicaearchus fgm. 23 [Athen. 13 p. 603b] ἀπειθήσας=disobedient) of members of a synagogue at Corinth Ac 19:9. Of a part of Israel Ro 11:31. Of people of Judea 15:31. οἱ ἀπειθήσαντες Ἰουδαῖοι the disobedient (but see below, end) Judeans Ac 14:2. λαὸς ἀπειθῶν Ro 10:21; B 12:4 (both Is 65:2). οἱ ἀπειθοῦντες IMg 8:2; 1 Cl 58:1. Of gentiles οἱ ἀπειθήσαντες Hb 11:31.—Gener. 3:18; 1 Pt 3:20. In a number of pass. NRSV and REB, among others, with less probability render ἀ. ‘disbelieve’ or an equivalent.—DELG s.v. πείθομαι. M-M. TW.
__________________________________
Liddell-Scott, Greek Lexicon (Abridged)

[LS] ἀπειθέω
ἀπειθέω, f. ήσω, to be disobedient, refuse compliance, Aesch.; c. dat. to disobey, Eur., Plat.
__________________________________
Louw-Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the NT

[LN] ἀπειθέω (a) disobey 36.23 (b) reject belief 31.107


NAS John 3:36
"He who believes (pisteuo) in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey (apeitheo) the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

- Translators always seem to get stuck on this one
- It seems in John 3:36 they see the need to translate "apeitheo" as not believe due to the contrast with believes
- The first letter "a" in apeitheo is negating a word that means (I'll put some in a passive sense): to be convinced, persuaded, believe, obey, follow. So, we can see how this word can mean "not believe" or "not obey." So, we end up with translation choices, but as you can see from the above lexicons, the negated form of the word heavily trends to meaning disobedience.
- One of the issues in translating apeitheo as not believe is that there is another Greek word that clearly means "not believe": apistia - if you look at the word pisteuo above in J3:36 and note again what happens when there is an "a" placed at the beginning of the word, we now have a negated believe, or does not believe. So, why use apeitheo when apistia can be used to clearly state not believe, assuming not believe is what is being conveyed?
- I think one of the best sections of Scripture to deal with this word is the following. I'll try to clarify why:

NKJ Hebrews 3:7-19 Therefore, as the Holy Spirit says: "Today, if you will hear His voice, 8 Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion, In the day of trial in the wilderness, 9 Where your fathers tested Me, tried Me, And saw My works forty years. 10 Therefore I was angry with that generation, And said,`They always go astray in their heart, And they have not known My ways. 11 So I swore in My wrath,`They shall not enter My rest.'" 12 Beware, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief (apistia) in departing from the living God; 13 but exhort one another daily, while it is called "Today," lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. 14 For we have become partakers of Christ if we hold the beginning of our confidence steadfast to the end, 15 while it is said: "Today, if you will hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion." 16 For who, having heard, rebelled? Indeed, was it not all who came out of Egypt, led by Moses? 17 Now with whom was He angry forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose corpses fell in the wilderness? 18 And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who did not obey (apeitheo)? 19 So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief (apistia).

- You can see the context of rebellion & sin
- Sin is lawlessness - disobedience to law
- Note the use of apistia (unbelief) in 3:12
- Most importantly, note the use of apistia (unbelief) & apeitheo (disobey) in 3:19
- It's clear why these 2 different words are being translated as they are here - to translate them both as not believe (2 different words being translated the same) would not make a lot of sense
- Clearly the author seems to be telling us something - unbelief & disobedience are being paralleled

- In my view this brings up another point to substantiate this observation: When belief is studied comprehensively, we find that it is used at times in parallel with obedience:

NKJ Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

At the end of all this, I have come to see the Greek lexical tools as being correct in this matter.
- I primarily use "not obey" when translating apeitheo.
-
I have noted these parallels of faith/belief & obedience in several places in our Text.
- Thus it makes sense to also see the parallel in unbelief & disobedience.
- John 3:36 makes perfect sense to me to contrast belief & disobedience
- Belief in Christ is ultimately Obedience to Christ since He is The Christ
- Disobedience to Christ is ultimately not believing He is the Christ

You likely didn't ask for all this, but there you have it...
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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Here's a brief from 3 Greek lexicons providing English meanings:

Bauer-Danker, Greek-English Lexicon of the NT (BDAG)

[BDAG] ἀπειθέω
• ἀπειθέω (opp. πείθομαι; s. ἀπείθεια) impf. ἠπείθουν; 1 aor. ἠπείθησα (for ἀπιθέω [Hom.] since Aeschyl., Pla.+) disobey, be disobedient (cp. PYadin 24a, 10 [restored] of refusal); in our lit. disobedience is always toward God, God’s ordinances, or revelation (like Eur., Or. 31; Pla., Leg. 741d; Lucian, Dial. Deor. 8, 1; SIG 736, 40 [92 BC] τὸν δὲ ἀπειθοῦντα ἢ ἀπρεπῶς ἀναστρεφόμενον εἰς τὸ θεῖον μαστιγούντω οἱ ἱεροί; Dt 1:26; 9:23; Josh 5:6; Is 36:5; 63:10; Bar 1:18f). W. dat. of pers. (Num 14:43 κυρίω) τῷ θεῷ (Diod. S. 5, 74, 4 ἀ. τοῖς θεοῖς; Hierocles 24, 473 τῷ θεῷ; Jos., Ant. 9, 249) Ro 11:30, cp. Pol 2:1. τῷ υἱῷ J 3:36.—W. dat. of thing (Diod. S. 5, 71, 5 τοῖς νόμοις) τῇ ἀληθείᾳ Ro 2:8 (Theoph. Ant. 1, 14 p. 92, 5). τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ 1 Pt 4:17. τῷ λόγῳ 2:8; 3:1. τοῖς εἰρημένοις 1 Cl 59:1. τοῖς ἐμοῖς ἐλέγχοις 57:4 (Pr 1:25).—Abs. (Dicaearchus fgm. 23 [Athen. 13 p. 603b] ἀπειθήσας=disobedient) of members of a synagogue at Corinth Ac 19:9. Of a part of Israel Ro 11:31. Of people of Judea 15:31. οἱ ἀπειθήσαντες Ἰουδαῖοι the disobedient (but see below, end) Judeans Ac 14:2. λαὸς ἀπειθῶν Ro 10:21; B 12:4 (both Is 65:2). οἱ ἀπειθοῦντες IMg 8:2; 1 Cl 58:1. Of gentiles οἱ ἀπειθήσαντες Hb 11:31.—Gener. 3:18; 1 Pt 3:20. In a number of pass. NRSV and REB, among others, with less probability render ἀ. ‘disbelieve’ or an equivalent.—DELG s.v. πείθομαι. M-M. TW.
__________________________________
Liddell-Scott, Greek Lexicon (Abridged)

[LS] ἀπειθέω
ἀπειθέω, f. ήσω, to be disobedient, refuse compliance, Aesch.; c. dat. to disobey, Eur., Plat.
__________________________________
Louw-Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the NT

[LN] ἀπειθέω (a) disobey 36.23 (b) reject belief 31.107


NAS John 3:36
"He who believes (pisteuo) in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey (apeitheo) the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

- Translators always seem to get stuck on this one
- It seems in John 3:36 they see the need to translate "apeitheo" as not believe due to the contrast with believes
- The first letter "a" in apeitheo is negating a word that means (I'll put some in a passive sense): to be convinced, persuaded, believe, obey, follow. So, we can see how this word can mean "not believe" or "not obey." So, we end up with translation choices, but as you can see from the above lexicons, the negated form of the word heavily trends to meaning disobedience.
- One of the issues in translating apeitheo as not believe is that there is another Greek word that clearly means "not believe": apistia - if you look at the word pisteuo above in J3:36 and note again what happens when there is an "a" placed at the beginning of the word, we now have a negated believe, or does not believe. So, why use apeitheo when apistia can be used to clearly state not believe, assuming not believe is what is being conveyed?
- I think one of the best sections of Scripture to deal with this word is the following. I'll try to clarify why:

NKJ Hebrews 3:7-19 Therefore, as the Holy Spirit says: "Today, if you will hear His voice, 8 Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion, In the day of trial in the wilderness, 9 Where your fathers tested Me, tried Me, And saw My works forty years. 10 Therefore I was angry with that generation, And said,`They always go astray in their heart, And they have not known My ways. 11 So I swore in My wrath,`They shall not enter My rest.'" 12 Beware, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief (apistia) in departing from the living God; 13 but exhort one another daily, while it is called "Today," lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. 14 For we have become partakers of Christ if we hold the beginning of our confidence steadfast to the end, 15 while it is said: "Today, if you will hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion." 16 For who, having heard, rebelled? Indeed, was it not all who came out of Egypt, led by Moses? 17 Now with whom was He angry forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose corpses fell in the wilderness? 18 And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who did not obey (apeitheo)? 19 So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief (apistia).

- You can see the context of rebellion & sin
- Sin is lawlessness - disobedience to law
- Note the use of apistia (unbelief) in 3:12
- Most importantly, note the use of apistia (unbelief) & apeitheo (disobey) in 3:19
- It's clear why these 2 different words are being translated as they are here - to translate them both as not believe (2 different words being translated the same) would not make a lot of sense
- Clearly the author seems to be telling us something - unbelief & disobedience are being paralleled

- In my view this brings up another point to substantiate this observation: When belief is studied comprehensively, we find that it is used at times in parallel with obedience:

NKJ Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

At the end of all this, I have come to see the Greek lexical tools as being correct in this matter.
- I primarily use "not obey" when translating apeitheo.
-
I have noted these parallels of faith/belief & obedience in several places in our Text.
- Thus it makes sense to also see the parallel in unbelief & disobedience.
- John 3:36 makes perfect sense to me to contrast belief & disobedience
- Belief in Christ is ultimately Obedience to Christ since He is The Christ
- Disobedience to Christ is ultimately not believing He is the Christ

You likely didn't ask for all this, but there you have it...

simply can't beat the good old Greek!
 
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Soyeong

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I read John 3:36 in my new HCSB and realized that the second part of the verse is significantly different than what I remember it being in NASB [and most others]. It concerned me a little bit wondering about the translator philosophy going into it.

HCSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who refuses to believe in the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

CSB " The one who believes in the Son has eternal life, but the one who rejects the Son will not see life; instead, the wrath of God remains on him."

NASB "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

The greek word for belief seems to have some indications of obedience in it. Do any of you have any thoughts on those two translations vs the consensus that NASB reflects. Does it make any difference when that verse is preached? Thank you.

This is not a KJVO thread!
Those translations are synonymous. What we believe is expressed through our actions, which is why James 2:17-18 says that faith without works is dead and that he would show his faith by his works. Obedience to any set of instructions that are for our own good is about putting our faith in the one who gave them to rightly guide us, which is why Jesus said in Matthew 23:23 that faith is one of the weightier matters of the law. Every example of faith listed in Hebrews 11 is also an example of obedience to God's will. In Revelation 14:12, those who kept God's commandments are the same as those who kept faith in Jesus. In John 6:40, those who believe in Jesus will have eternal life, and in Matthew 19:17, Jesus said that if we want to enter eternal life, then obey the commandments, so obedience to the commandments is what it looks like to believe in Jesus. In Galatians 3:10-12, Paul associated a quote from Habakkuk 2:4 with a quote from Leviticus 18:5, so the righteous who are living by faith are the same as those who are living in obedience to God's law. In Romans 3:31, our faith upholds God's law.

In Numbers 5:6, disobedience to God's law is referred to as breaking faith. In 2 Timothy 3:8, those who oppose Moses also oppose the truth, being of corrupted minds and disqualified in regard to the faith.
 
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The reason for some of the translations going with "reject" instead of the idea of "disobedience" has to do with what the context adds into the 'dictionary meaning' of the word alone.

note context references e.g. = John 3:11, picked up again in John 3:32 and following, of course between these is the call to believe in the Son of God, which is referenced in the first half of John 3:36.

So what does this add? That this whole chapter is really to do with "accepting" the testimony of John the Baptist and "accepting" the testimony from on high.

...rejecting is the opposite to this concept...

...But we come to the NASB "he who does not obey the Son" and the CSB "the one who rejects the son"...

So note that if the context is a call to accept the testimony of Jesus/John, then to "reject" (IN TERMS OF NOT BEING OBEDIENT TO THAT TESTIMONY HEARD - NOT RESPONDING ACCORDINGLY, BUT DISOBEYING IT'S CALL TO BELIEVE) it is a cleaner way of portraying the TYPE of disobedience it is particularly referencing... If I can say, more so that of an [initial] salvation response to the 'Gospel', rather than a 'later on' obedience to like the sermon on the mount teachings... but this is not a perfect way of putting it...

So anyway, the CSV is trying to give the nuanced meaning to help our minds not stumble when we read it... trying to portray that it ISN'T like 'doing-righteously-Jesus-instruction-disobedience' but more a 'holistic-attitude-refusal-to-heed-the-testimony-given-concerning-God's-Son-disobedience'. It's accepting (believing) vs. rejecting (disobeying) the testimony given.

This is really quite difficult to explain, but I hope you get what I mean.

...What will you do, obey the Gospel [call] or not...?

The question then is: Is the NASB translation better or worse here when it essentially stays more 'neutral' on meaning IN context? Now you can argue you can come to the same interpretation from the NASB translation (and I'm not against the NASB, it's my typically preferred read), but it is less natural for our minds to understand 'the rejection of' a message/testimony as "disobeying" it. This tends to carry a slightly different type of portrayed response in english... do I have to explain it? It should be intuitively known, to a degree, if you are a native english speaker.
 
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Danthemailman

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In regards to "does not obey the Son" in the New American Standard translation of the Bible, this does not mean that receiving eternal life is received based on the merits of our obedience/works which follows believing in the Son, but obey by choosing to believe in the Son.

If John wanted to make obedience the central theme in salvation here, he would have said: "He who believes and obeys the Son has eternal life," but that is not what John said. To obey the Son here is to choose to believe in the Son.

The King James Version renders this same verse as: He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that "believeth not the Son" shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. The NIV says "rejects the Son" and the HCSB says, "refuses to believe in the Son."

The Greek word translated as "believeth not" in that verse is apeitheo and it means: "not believe, disobedient, obey not, unbelieving." Strong’s definition of apeitheo is "to disbelieve willfully and perversely."

So in 3:36, to "not obey the Son" means to reject the Son by refusing to believe in the Son.
 
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Danthemailman

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So note that if the context is a call to accept the testimony of Jesus/John, then to "reject" (IN TERMS OF NOT BEING OBEDIENT TO THAT TESTIMONY HEARD - NOT RESPONDING ACCORDINGLY, BUT DISOBEYING IT'S CALL TO BELIEVE)
Amen! Well said. Just as in Romans 10:16, we read - "But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?" Here we also see disobeying it's call to believe.
 
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Amen! Well said. Just as in Romans 10:16, we read - "But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?" Here we also see disobeying it's call to believe.

Good verse reference to Rom 10:16!

And interestingly, in this case, it is the NASB ("not all heed") and the NIV ("not all...accepted") which steer away from rendering as 'obey' (CSB = "not all obeyed")... noted though a different word in use... NASB is trying to be the most 'literal' ("heed") in the sense that the root of the word is like 'listened to' in sense of obeyed it... still the parallel of concept is seen here similarly - we too have several words/ways to portray the same types of things.
 
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The Cambridge Bible For Schools and Colleges says (John 3:36):

[he that believeth not] This may also mean he that obeyeth not, and this is better, for it is not the same word as ‘he that believeth’ with the negative added. The same correction seems to be needed, Acts 14:2; Acts 19:9; Romans 11:30 (see margin). Comp. Hebrews 4:6; Hebrews 4:11; 1 Peter 4:17.​

The point to reference this is to also address why the KJV will render it as 'those who don't believe'. It seems to be less directly to do with picking up the context of the chapter (though they would use that as argument), but just a broader understood 'standard' [gloss] translation for the word. I believe (not 100%, but I recall it, and the lexicons seem to confirm it) that this word used to be understood as like the simply the 'opposite' word to believe, which is where STRONGS (an older lexicon) goes. But the UBS lexicon says it is to "disobey; be an unbeliever". It seems most modern translations steer away from the older understanding now and revert to the more basic 'obedience' concept, where they can, since there is a more direct 'standard' [gloss] word for the word 'unbelief' (apistis).

I could be wrong here, yet...

There is an interesting problem with the word too:

A problem comes in where this word is used as a stand-alone descriptor of a group of people without a referent to what exactly they are disobeying. Most times it seems to provide the reference, like in 1Peter 4:17 it talks of those who are DISOBEDIENT to the Gospel of God. In John 3:36 it was about those who "reject the Son". But, for example in Romans 15:31 it has no immediate reference to what exactly this group is disobedient to (the larger preceding context though AGAIN - Rom 15:19ff - is about receiving the Gospel as the "obedience" of the Gentiles). In Acts 14:2 there is a contextual reference to v1 where some didn't PISTEUO ("believe"). This is where one could argue it is used as a simple 'opposite' idea to believing. But the point here is that as a word it seemed to be able to be used as a shorthand descriptor for 'non-Christians as reject-ors of the Gospel', or 'unbelievers' without needing a reference in the sentence or words following (sole substantive participle). If it was rendered as 'the disobedient people', we intuitively desire the concept to be clarified with what they were disobedient to. And so the simple concept under ONE word is 'unbelievers'. And this we understand without needed further clarity.

Let's see how some translations treat Acts 14:2 and Rom 15:31 as examples where there is no referent...

Acts 14:2 (context is immediately opposite to believing) =
  • CSB "the unbelieving Jews" (as group-standard reference)
  • NASB "the Jews who disbelieved" (moving towards connecting to the message denial, yet still as 'unbelief')
  • CJB "the Jews who would not be persuaded" (steers away from "unbelief" as the description of message denial)
  • NET "the Jews who refused to believe" (mid-way like NASB)

Rom 15:31 (context doesn't perfectly clarify reference to what the disobedience is to) =
  • CSB "the unbelievers" ('unbelievers' as standard reference)
  • NASB "those who are disobedient" (steering back to root word in this situation, probably considering Rom 15:18)
  • CJB "the unbelievers" ('unbelievers' as standard reference)
  • NET "those who are disobedient" (steering back to root word in this situation, probably considering Rom 15:18)

If all these examples are flawed, and this makes little sense, in part it is at least interesting that the older lexicons have more emphasis on "believing" as inherent in the word and the newer ones emphasise the "obedience" as inherent in the word. Passages do seem to use these in parallel at times, but this does not mean the WORD is the same. And I think this is what the newer translations are trying to nuance, beyond, "believing"

It must be noted the enormous connection the 'disbelieving' of the Gospel, which probably should inform the 'no referent' situations as that being the primarily understood implied referent. Maybe?
 
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GDL

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Amen! Well said. Just as in Romans 10:16, we read - "But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?" Here we also see disobeying it's call to believe.

Good verse reference to Rom 10:16!

And interestingly, in this case, it is the NASB ("not all heed") and the NIV ("not all...accepted") which steer away from rendering as 'obey' (CSB = "not all obeyed")... noted though a different word in use... NASB is trying to be the most 'literal' ("heed") in the sense that the root of the word is like 'listened to' in sense of obeyed it... still the parallel of concept is seen here similarly - we too have several words/ways to portray the same types of things.

The Greek word used in Rom10:16 is best translated as "obeyed." The lexical work supports this. A word search of uses in the LXX & NT supports it. The 4 verses in which the word is used in Romans support it:

NKJ Rom. 6:12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body, that you should obey it in its lusts.

NKJ Rom. 6:16 Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin leading to death, or of obedience leading to righteousness?

NKJ Rom. 6:17 But God be thanked that though you were slaves of sin, yet you obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine to which you were delivered.

NKJ Rom. 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

And at minimum this concept of being commanded to believe supports it:

NKJ 1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.

- God commands belief in His Son Jesus Christ
- The fact that Jesus is the Christ is the foundational point of the Gospel
- When we believe in Jesus Christ - we also obey God's command to believe in Jesus Christ
- The more you study this concept - the easier it is to see that Biblical Faith is also Obedience to God & Obedience to God is also Faith in God
- When this is understood - it is also clear that Obedience to God is not a Work - Works done in Faith-Obedience are Works
- We believe the Gospel & We Obey the Gospel
 
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