Why do you interpret the entire book chronologically? The birth of Christ and His ascension (Rev 12:5) are mentioned AFTER the sounding of the seventh trumpet (Rev 11:15-18). Do you think Christ was born and ascended to heaven after the sounding of the seventh trumpet? I'm sure you don't. So, with that in mind, it would be foolish to think that the events written about in the book all occur chronologically.
I didn't say that all 7 trumpets already sounded. Yet again you have misrepresented my view, as you have done so many times before.
You are misinterpreting the 70th week. It is Christ who established the new covenant with His blood and put an end to the animal sacrifices during the 70th week. The confirmation of the new covenant continued with the preaching of the gospel first in Jerusalem and the rest of Israel. There is no basis whatsoever for inserting a huge gap within the 70th week. The prophecy had to do with 70 continuous weeks (of years, so 490 years) with no gaps.
Why do you think that John put the birth of Jesus Christ in? You use that as the only excuse to claim it is not chronological. I claim it as the reason Jesus Christ is the 70th week.
The life of Christ inserted into the narrative gives you the reason for the gap. The gap was not for Himself. The gap was for the fulness of the Gentiles. For John to go out of the way, and really not mention the church at all in the whole narrative, yet is sending this account to 7 churches, does not give you a single clue? How can you miss that point, but think the book cannot be in chronological order?
Should John have declared to the 7 churches there would be almost a two thousand year gap in events to prove to this current, seemingly clueless generation, that it was about them, so posters today can stop claiming it is not about them?
Do you think the 70AD event was only about the Jews themselves, or did it pertain directly to this gap that no one wants to admit has happened?
Then explain why Gabriel did not specify that when Messiah was cut off, that was the stopping point of the sacrifices. Do you think verse 27 itself refers to this large gap? It seems you do not. If it does not, why object to the gap at all. If you object that a temple is built, and verse 27 is not referring to that time, and verse 27 is not a 1900 year gap, what point is verse 27 making?
It is not a 7 year peace treaty. It is not a 1900 year gap. It can only be the days of the sounding of the 7th Trumpet. Days that is symbolic of a week long celebration. Except the celebration that starts in chapter 11, turns into a woe when Satan is cast out of heaven and very angry his time is short.
Gabriel correctly identified this woe as stopping the activity of this future temple, and gives us desolation, that John claims is the 42 months given to Satan, the FP, and the beast. Because the days of the sounding are interrupted in the narrative by chapter 13, after John inserts his version of Christ being the 70th week mentioned by Gabriel in Daniel 9. Chapter 12 is the correct chronological order of the 70th week. John places chapter 12 in the correct position to make the best sense of Daniel 9. The only thing John does not do is explain how this is all reconciled to the rest of the NT like the OD and the writings of Paul. John is clearly pulling from Daniel, except one tiny detail of the OD.
I also think most Jews would dismiss Revelation immediately if they thought Daniel was involved, and Jesus' teachings. They seem to reject that either are important. Revelation, though sent to 7 churches, favors the nation of Israel by not directly mentioning the church. It is about them mostly. At least chapter 12 points to that notion. Even the OD is heavily about Israel and not the church. Jesus gives us no hint of a 1991 year gap.
