Jesus The Sin-Offering for the Human Race

[BNR32FAN]

and "believes", in the Greek is in the present, continuance tense. which in the grammar is linked to "whoever", which means that some can stop believeing. "whoever continues to believe..."

"world" here is the entire human race

Hence John 15:6

 

[Brightfame52]

“Jesus Christ the righteous: and He is the sin-offering for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world” (1 John 2:1-2)

Who does John mean by the “our”? There can be no doubt from this Letter, that it is addressed to all Christians, both Jews and Gentiles. There is no indication anywhere, that John wrote this Letter only to Jewish believers, as some argue. There are many verses that are clear, that every true believer is being addressed in 1 John.

Here we have “our”, the entire Christian community, contrasted with “ολου του κοσμου”, the whole world. True believers, with non believers. The saved, with the unsaved. The two classes in this world. Either a person is with Jesus Christ, and truly saved, or they are against Jesus Christ, and they are truly lost. There is no way that this can be limited in any way, to mean “a few”, or even “the many”, in the world. If, as we have seen, that the “our” means born-again believers, then the “ἀλλά”, “but”, as used in “contrast”; referring to “the whole world”, is that which is outside of these Christians, and refers to the lost world of sinners. This is further seen in the use of the same words, in the fifth chapter of this Letter. In verse 19 we read, “We know that we are of God, and the whole world (ο κοσμος ολος) lies in the evil one”. Here we have the contrast again, “we are of God”, which can only refer to the truly born again believer. In verse 18 these are referred to as, “born of God”, impossible to refer to any unsaved person. Then we have the same phrase used in 2:2, “the whole world”, which can only mean, as this passage shows, unsaved, as they are said to “lie in the evil one”, that is, in his power. If, as some would argue for, the “our” in 2:2, as referring to Jewish believers, and “the whole world”, to the Gentile believers. Then, are we to suppose, that the “our” in 2:2, being the same as the “we” in 5:19, as Jewish Christian, who are “of God”; that the Gentile Christains, who are “the whole world”, are “in the power of the devil”? There is no reason why “the whole world” should be any different in both these places in this Letter of John, other than for “theology”!

What does John mean by “ιλασμος” in 2:2? Some Bible versions chose the word “propitiation”, which means, “appeasement, conciliation”, also “A propitiatory gift, offering, or sacrifice” (Oxford).

In Ezekiel 44:27, the Hebrew has, “he shall offer his sin-offering (חטּאה), declares the Lord GOD”. And the LXX, “they shall bring a propitiation (ιλασμον), saith the Lord God. In the NT, the Greek “ιλασμος”, late substantive from “ιλασκομα”, is also used for “merciful”, where it is used in Luke 18:13, “God be merciful to me a sinner”. Here neither the meanings “propitiate”, or “sin-offering”, would do. In Romans 3:25, Paul writes, “whom God set forth ιλαστηριον ”. “set forth” (προτίθεμαι), here has the meaning, “offered, provided”. “ἱλαστήριος”, meaning “the Mercy Seat”, from where the “sin offering” comes.

“it answers in Septuagint to Hebrew kaapar, to effect an atonement or reconciliation with God; in Eze 44:27, to the sin-offering” (Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown, Commentary)

Jesus Christ is the “sin-offering”, and the One Who “reconciles” the sinner by being “Merciful”, to God. This “sin-offering” is for the entire human race, every single person, as it very clear from 1 John 2:2, with 5:19. But, this does not mean, that every person is “saved”, which would be “universal salvation”, something that is no where taught in the Bible. Romans 3:26 tells us, “To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus” (KJV). The Sacrifice of Jesus’ Death is indeed universal, but the “effects” of this “Sacrifice”, is only when the sinner is “justified” with God, when they “believe in Jesus”. Paul makes this very clear in Ephesians 1:13, “And you also were included in Christ when you heard the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation. When you believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit”.

Hes contrasting jewish believers with Gentile believers. Lost people who die in their sins, God has not been propitiated for, thats utter nonsense, that would be the unsaved.

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

Hes contrasting jewish believers with Gentile believers. Lost people who die in their sins, God has not been propitiated for, thats utter nonsense, that would be the unsaved.

Using your logic, in chapter 5 when John writes in verse 19, "And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness", using the same language he does in 2:2, "the whole world". You are saying that the Jewish believers are "we are of God", and the Gentile believers, "the whole world", and these Gentiles are in the power of the devil? ONLY for your theological purposes will you try to make the distinction between Jewish and Gentile believers, which John chapter 5 clearly shows is not the case! Read the Bible as it speaks, and you will see it God's way, like "the world" in John 3:16, meaning every single human being. Again, theology tries to destroy what the Lord very plainly says!

 

[Brightfame52]

Using your logic, in chapter 5 when John writes in verse 19, "And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness", using the same language he does in 2:2, "the whole world". You are saying that the Jewish believers are "we are of God", and the Gentile believers, "the whole world", and these Gentiles are in the power of the devil? ONLY for your theological purposes will you try to make the distinction between Jewish and Gentile believers, which John chapter 5 clearly shows is not the case! Read the Bible as it speaks, and you will see it God's way, like "the world" in John 3:16, meaning every single human being. Again, theology tries to destroy what the Lord very plainly says!

Lost people haven't had propitiation for sins, Gods wrath is upon them, so it is impossible for them to be part of the world in 1 Jn 2:1-2

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

Lost people haven't had propitiation for sins, Gods wrath is upon them, so it is impossible for them to be part of the world in 1 Jn 2:1-2

you have ignored what I have said in the OP, where the Greek “ιλασμος” is used also as "sin-offering", as it does also in the Greek OT. Also, you have not shown what I have said with the 2 uses of "the whole world", in 2:2 and 5:19, as referring to anyone other than "born-again Christians" and "the lost world". There is no other way to understand this, unless you force your theology into what the Bible says here

 

[Brightfame52]

you have ignored what I have said in the OP, where the Greek “ιλασμος” is used also as "sin-offering", as it does also in the Greek OT. Also, you have not shown what I have said with the 2 uses of "the whole world", in 2:2 and 5:19, as referring to anyone other than "born-again Christians" and "the lost world". There is no other way to understand this, unless you force your theology into what the Bible says here

Those who sins have been propitiated for are saved. Lost people sins have not been propitiated for!

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

Those who sins have been propitiated for are saved. Lost people sins have not been propitiated for!

I don't think that you know what you are talking about! Do you actually known what "to propitiate" means? simply put, it means "to appease". The Greek lexicon of Liddell & Scott define, "ιλασμος", by "a means of appeasing. atonement, sinoffering". And Thayer in his lexicon, "in Alex. usage the means of appeasing, a propitiation", "a means of appeasing, propitiation" (G Abbott-Smith); and " expiation, propitiation. sin-offering" (A&G Greek lexicon). With this evidence of the usage of the Greek word, what seems to be your objection? There are a number of English Bibles that use "atoning sacrifice" here, or "sacrifice", or "payment for sins". You are still avoiding the same language used by John in chapter 5, where the distinction between the "we", and "the whole world" that is under the power of the enemy, clearly shows that the distinction in 2:2, between "our" and "the whole world", cannot be Jews and Gentiles! You avoid to address this, because John's use of this "the whole world", clearly destroys your personal theology! Forget what you THINK the Bible might say, and accept what the Bible DOES say!

 

[Brightfame52]

I don't think that you know what you are talking about! Do you actually known what "to propitiate" means? simply put, it means "to appease". The Greek lexicon of Liddell & Scott define, "ιλασμος", by "a means of appeasing. atonement, sinoffering". And Thayer in his lexicon, "in Alex. usage the means of appeasing, a propitiation", "a means of appeasing, propitiation" (G Abbott-Smith); and " expiation, propitiation. sin-offering" (A&G Greek lexicon). With this evidence of the usage of the Greek word, what seems to be your objection? There are a number of English Bibles that use "atoning sacrifice" here, or "sacrifice", or "payment for sins". You are still avoiding the same language used by John in chapter 5, where the distinction between the "we", and "the whole world" that is under the power of the enemy, clearly shows that the distinction in 2:2, between "our" and "the whole world", cannot be Jews and Gentiles! You avoid to address this, because John's use of this "the whole world", clearly destroys your personal theology! Forget what you THINK the Bible might say, and accept what the Bible DOES say!

Im afraid you dont know what you talking about, you dont know what propitiation is, not by a longshot. Nobody under Gods wrath have had their sins propitiated, its absolutely impossible, its a total contradiction.

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

Im afraid you dont know what you talking about, you dont know what propitiation is, not by a longshot. Nobody under Gods wrath have had their sins propitiated, its absolutely impossible, its a total contradiction.

showing your "reformed" bias!

 

[Brightfame52]

showing your "reformed" bias!

You still havent shown you know what propitiation means.

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

You still havent shown you know what propitiation means.

You are not really interested in knowing because if you were then you will respond to the OP

 

[Brightfame52]

You are not really interested in knowing because if you were then you will respond to the OP

You have no clue what propitiation means If you did you know how foolish it is to say everyone's sins have been propitiated by Christ.

 

[In-Christ-Alone]

You have no clue what propitiation means If you did you know how foolish it is to say everyone's sins have been propitiated by Christ.

 

[Brightfame52]

Those who Christ was a sin offering for, they by that offering have been sanctified unto God permanently. Heb 10:10

10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

 

[wandering misfit]

There are those that hear through God's irisistable grace to "accept", those without the ability to hear "reject".

 

[wandering misfit]

Mark 4:11 And He was saying to them, “To you has been given the mystery of the kingdom of God, but those who are outside get everything in parables, 12 so that while seeing, they may see and not perceive, and while hearing, they may hear and not understand, otherwise they might return and be forgiven.”
13 And He *said to them, “Do you not understand this parable? How will you understand all the parables? 14 The sower sows the word. 15 These are the ones who are beside the road where the word is sown; and when they hear, immediately Satan comes and takes away the word which has been sown in them. 16 In a similar way these are the ones on whom seed was sown on the rocky places, who, when they hear the word, immediately receive it with joy; 17 and they have no firm root in themselves, but are only temporary; then, when affliction or persecution arises because of the word, immediately they fall away. 18 And others are the ones on whom seed was sown among the thorns; these are the ones who have heard the word, 19 but the worries of the world, and the deceitfulness of riches, and the desires for other things enter in and choke the word, and it becomes unfruitful. 20 And those are the ones on whom seed was sown on the good soil; and they hear the word and accept it and bear fruit, thirty, sixty, and a hundredfold.”

 

[Brightfame52]

Those who Christ was a sin offering for, they by that offering have been perfected unto God permanently. Heb 10:14

14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

 

[Brightfame52]

Those who Christ was a sin offering for, they by that offering have been sanctified unto God permanently. Heb 10:10

10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

The word sanctified here in Heb 10:10 is the word hagiazō and means:

to purify by expiation: free from the guilt of sin

The Death of Christ has freed them He died for from the guilt of sin. It also agrees with Heb 1:3

Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
The word purged is the word katharismos:

a cleansing from the guilt of sins wrought by the expiatory sacrifice of Christ

So cleansing from and freedom from the guilt of sin is automatically a saving result of the death of Christ !

 

[Brightfame52]

A companion verse of Heb 10:10 which confirms the saving result of them Christ died for, namely His Sheep, its Heb 10:14

14 For by one offering[His death] he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

Now who are the them that are sanctified ? Look again at Heb 10:10, and how were they sanctified ? Now these by that same means, Christs death are said to be perfected forever ! This includes their Justification before God, a complete cleansing of all the guilt of their sins. And that for ever !

 

[Brightfame52]

The Blood/Death of Christ not only legally saved all for whom He died, but it also effects experiential salvation or conversion. Heb 9:12-14

12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

13 For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh:15

14How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?

"How much more shall the blood of Christ purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?"

You see this ? Its the powerful Blood of Christ that converts them He died for unto serving the living God. That means they shall live by the Faith of Christ unto serving the True and Living God.

1 Thess 1:9

For they themselves shew of us what manner of entering in we had unto you, and how ye turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God;

This is a result of the powerful effectual blood of Christ !