Jesus Christ and Repentance

Brightfame52

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The unregenerate, who are in the flesh still, have no right to or no command to repent. All while in the flesh as natural men are bound to the Law, to do the whole Law as it was with Adam. So any command for men to repent as say in Acts 17:30

30 And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

Its to the regenerate, who through the work of Christ and the Holy Spirit have been freed to be married to another. Rom 7:1-3

Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.

3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Now its only through the death of Christ for an individual are they free from the dominion of the law, however its a secret as who it is Christ died until born again by the Spirit. So even the unregenerate elect for whom Christ died, are bound to do the law. Until they are regenerate, the command to repent isnt for the unregenerate elect. All natural men are bound to and under the dominion of the Law.7
 
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bling

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Are you not embarrassed to intentionally IGNORE all the
Scriptures I provided you (which all harmonized with each other)
to present a "theory" with no Biblical validation.


(1) ALL MEN (after the fall of Adam) were born spiritually
DEAD and slaves in Satan's "Kingdom of Babylon",
The Bible is crystal clear on this point.


So your first "theory" (above) is already PROVEN
to be a personal heresy.


(2) SOME MEN (after the fall of Adam) were ELECTED
to be saved ("born again") and God provided a SAVIOR
for them so that they would no longer be "slaves of Satan"...
but they were "translated" from DEATH into (eternal) LIFE.


Eph 2:1
And you hath he quickened [made alive/born again],
who WERE DEAD in trespasses and sins;


Joh 3:3
Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily,
I say unto thee, Except a man be born again,
he cannot see the kingdom of God.


(3) How in the world can you be a "teacher" of the Gospel
and not understand the MOST BASIC and ESSENTIAL elements
of the Gospel?





DUH!
That is why I explained to you (several times) that you must
(1) FIRST discern the CONTEXT of a passage before you have any
hope of understanding the MEANING and (2) Secondly, your theory
must HARMONIZE with ALL RELATED Scripture before you can
even PRETEND to have found Biblical Truth.


In other words, we can TELL by the Words of Christ that those
who were the CONTEXT of His Words were NEVER "elected" to
eternal life. They were PART of (the majority of mankind that)
were NEVER MEANT to be saved. They were PART of mankind
that was NEVER MEANT to be "born again".


Do you notice in MY GOSPEL (the Gospel of the Bible)
there are NO CONTRADICTIONS... but in your heresy
the entire Bible is one big contradiction... does that
not give you a CLUE that something is wrong
with your understanding of the Gospel?
It most certainly SHOULD.


Jim
Jim,

You are not addressing the real contrast between us.

It is not in the description of the elect and non-elect or even how the one becomes elect (a free ,undeserved in anyway, gift from God).

The question is really why one individual becomes elect and another does not become elect.

You seem to be saying (and please explain where I am wrong with my understanding of your ideas) that the elect (chosen) is virtually arbitrarily selected by God, but that cannot be, since arbitrarily selecting the elect would be a cruel and unjust selection method, contrary to God being perfectly Just.

Just throwing are hands up and saying: “there is no logical reason”, “it is all up to God”, and “ask God not me”, is contrary to knowing why God does everything else for humans, which is out of Love for humans.

The scripture you give are after the rules for selection were established and thus not part of the selection rules. The rules were established prior to the universe beginning, so yes, anyone can know who the elect will be. Everyone’s name starts out in the “Book of Life”, but some at the end of their life will be blotted out, due to not accepting God’s free undeserved charitable gift of forgiveness.
 
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bling

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There's no Salvation for the children of the devil. I didn't say anything about no salvation for sinners . The children of God are naturally born sinners like the children of the devil, but the difference is God saves His people from their sins but the children of the devil He condemns to hell because of their sins.
You are either a child of satan, slave of sin, sinning or a child of God, so we all start out slaves of sin, which is described as being a child of satan. God can change us.
 
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5thKingdom

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This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.
Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”


Paul is talking to INDIVIDUALS (as he was in Romans 8)
you have no BIBLICAL reason for thinking otherwise, besides
your presuppositions.


The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).


Now you CONFLATE the issue from the INDIVIDUAL "election"
(which is the subject/context of Romans 8 and Romans 9)
into one of a NATIONAL PURPOSE (producing the Messiah)


That is NOT THE SUBJECT of Romans 9... you only pretend it is
to support your error.


To PROVE this you need only to look at the comments about
Pharaoh... were they INDIVIDUAL or NATIONAL?


Then look at the comments about the DIFFERENCE between
"vessels of mercy" and "vessels of wrath"... was the CONTEXT
for INDIVIDUALS or NATIONS.


You embarrass yourself when (a) you pretend Romans 8 or
Romans 9 is NOT talking about INDIVIDUAL and (b) when you
try to DEFLECT the issue/context into one about vessels of
COMMON USE.... the TEXT refutes you, which you would KNOW
if you bothered to research each of the places GOD USED the
term translated as "dishonor".


But you are not looking to research for truth,
you are looking for support for your heretical presupposition.
Good luck with that.

Jim
 
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5thKingdom

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You are either a child of satan, slave of sin, sinning or a child of God, so we all start out slaves of sin, which is described as being a child of satan. God can change us.


Again you pretend.
Being BORN in Satan's Kingdom makes you a SLAVE of Satan
but not necessarily a "child of Satan".


Jesus was very specific.... the christian church consists of BOTH
unsaved "tares" SOWN by Satan (children of Satan) and saved
"wheat" SOWN by God (children of God)


You can PRETEND the saved "wheat" SOWN by God
are "children of Satan"... but you are only PRETENDING
to yourself again.

Jim
 
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5thKingdom

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Jim,
You are not addressing the real contrast between us.


I disagree... but go on.


It is not in the description of the elect and non-elect or even how the one becomes elect (a free ,undeserved in anyway, gift from God).


It most certainly IS THE DESCRIPTION of elect/non-elect
when God is CONTRASTING "vessels of mercy" against
"vessels of wrath".


The question is really why one individual becomes elect and another does not become elect.


That answer is GIVEN in the TEXT. Several times,
you just refuse to accept it:


Rom 9:11
(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)


Rom 9:15-16
For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.


Rom 9:17-18
For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.


Rom 9:1921
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?


Rom 9:22-24
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?


You seem to be saying (and please explain where I am wrong with my understanding of your ideas) that the elect (chosen) is virtually arbitrarily selected by God,


No, that is not ME saying that... it is GOD
You seem to have a very HARD TIME reading for comprehension:


Rom 9:16
So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.


Rom 9:18
Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.


Rom 9:22-23
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Joh 1:13
Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of [the Will of] God.


but that cannot be, since arbitrarily selecting the elect would be a cruel and unjust selection method, contrary to God being perfectly Just.


Rom 9:19-20
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?


Rom 9:21
Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?


Just throwing are hands up and saying: “there is no logical reason”, “it is all up to God”, and “ask God not me”,


Joh 6:44
NO MAN can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.


Joh 6:37
All that the Father giveth me shall come to me;
and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.


Joh 6:39
And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.


is contrary to knowing why God does everything else for humans, which is out of Love for humans.


Your argument is with GOD (not me)


And it is terribly naive for you to (continue to) pretend that
God is ONLY LOVE. God has many attributes (righteous,
and a consuming fire) which is WHY those without a Savior
spend eternity in Hell.


Or to say it in a purely humanistic way... so that even you
might be able to understand.... if God was ONLY LOVE then
nobody would be going to hell. And yet we find (in Scripture)
that some men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand"
the Gospel and some men were NEVER MEANT to "be converted"
or to "have their sins forgiven".


If some men were NEVER MEANT to "have their sins forgiven"
then they were NEVER MEANT to be saved (from your delusion
of a God that is ONLY LOVE... and yet your reject Bible Truth)


Jim
 
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5thKingdom

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Matthew 16:23 Jesus turned and said to Peter, “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me; you do not have in mind the concerns of God, but merely human concerns.”


Do you REALLY think Jesus was talking to Peter?
Or was He talking to SATAN ("Get behind Me Satan!)
who had POSSESSED Peter?

You do understand Satan and Demons can "possess" humans right?
Do you need some SCRIPTURES to teach you this Bible Truth?

Remember... the event above was BEFORE Pentecost and BEFORE
the Apostles were "indwelt" with the Holy Spirit.

I do not mean this to insult you... but you continue to READ
the Scripture in such a careless manner and with complete
disregard to any passage that CONTRADICTS your agenda.

Jim
 
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Brightfame52

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You are either a child of satan, slave of sin, sinning or a child of God, so we all start out slaves of sin, which is described as being a child of satan. God can change us.
I disagree with you. The children of God granted are born servants of sin, sinners, but never children of the devil ! You are deceived in that friend.
 
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bling

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I disagree... but go on.





It most certainly IS THE DESCRIPTION of elect/non-elect
when God is CONTRASTING "vessels of mercy" against
"vessels of wrath".





That answer is GIVEN in the TEXT. Several times,
you just refuse to accept it:


Rom 9:11
(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)


Rom 9:15-16
For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.


Rom 9:17-18
For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.


Rom 9:1921
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?


Rom 9:22-24
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?





No, that is not ME saying that... it is GOD
You seem to have a very HARD TIME reading for comprehension:


Rom 9:16
So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.


Rom 9:18
Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.


Rom 9:22-23
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Joh 1:13
Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of [the Will of] God.





Rom 9:19-20
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?


Rom 9:21
Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?





Joh 6:44
NO MAN can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.


Joh 6:37
All that the Father giveth me shall come to me;
and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.


Joh 6:39
And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.





Your argument is with GOD (not me)


And it is terribly naive for you to (continue to) pretend that
God is ONLY LOVE. God has many attributes (righteous,
and a consuming fire) which is WHY those without a Savior
spend eternity in Hell.


Or to say it in a purely humanistic way... so that even you
might be able to understand.... if God was ONLY LOVE then
nobody would be going to hell. And yet we find (in Scripture)
that some men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand"
the Gospel and some men were NEVER MEANT to "be converted"
or to "have their sins forgiven".


If some men were NEVER MEANT to "have their sins forgiven"
then they were NEVER MEANT to be saved (from your delusion
of a God that is ONLY LOVE... and yet your reject Bible Truth)


Jim
We agree for the most part on the characteristics of the saved and not saved, but why are some saved and others not saved is the question you are not addressing and I am addressing.
As far as your understanding of Romans 9 I gave you:
Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.


The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!


This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).


Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?


If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?


This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.


Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”


Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” is written to Christians and not non-Christians)?


Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?


Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?


Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?


The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).


How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.


Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.


Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!


The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.


If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potter’s signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

2 Tim. 2: 20 In a large house there are articles not only of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay; some are for special purposes and some for common use. 21 Those who cleanse themselves from the latter will be instruments for special purposes, made holy, useful to the Master and prepared to do any good work.

Important to note is the fact: the dishonorable vessel can cleanse themselves and become vessels of honor.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.
 
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5thKingdom

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We agree for the most part on the characteristics of the saved and not saved, but why are some saved and others not saved is the question you are not addressing and I am addressing.


No, I clearly addressed that issue with SCRIPTURE.
Obviously you disagree with the meaning of those Scriptures.

Jim

BTW... pretending the word translated as "dishonor" can/should
be translated as "common" is not supported by ANY OTHER USE
of that word in all of Scripture (as I already SHOWED you). So
you "opinion" is based on making a NEW meaning of the word.
.
 
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Brightfame52

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Again Christ gives repentance as the risen Saviour Acts 5:30-31

30 The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. 31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

Two Gifts of the risen Saviour, that come from/out of Him are Repentance and Forgiveness of sins.

Now Jesus Himself commands that these things be preached in His Name, because they flow from Him Lk 24:46-47

Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: 47 and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

Neither repentance nor forgiveness of sins have their source in man, but in Christ and His finished work !11
 
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Brightfame52

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Repentance accompanies redemption by the blood of Christ. Isa 51:11

11 Therefore the redeemed of the Lord shall return, and come with singing unto Zion; and everlasting joy shall be upon their head: they shall obtain gladness and joy; and sorrow and mourning shall flee away.

Now even though this may have a historical fulfillment with children of israel, it also has an analogous fulfillment for Spiritual Israel, the Church/Body of Christ whom He redeemed by His Precius Blood 1 Pet 1:18-19

18 Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;

19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:

Now notice the promise of the redeemed in Vs 11 they shall return. The word return here is shuwb and means:

to return, turn back

to turn back (to God), repent

And the same is said of the redeemed in 1 Pet 2:25

25 For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.

The word returned epistrephō:
  1. to turn to
    1. to the worship of the true God
  2. to cause to return, to bring back
Also the verb returned is in the passive voice which means:

Represents the subject as being the recipient of the action. e.g., in the sentence, "we were comforted" the subject "we" receives the action

So they were being returned by the redemption in Christ Jesus, which is their repentance towards God.

So all whom Christ died for and redeemed by His Blood, shall be given repentance and returned back to God.16
 
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Brightfame52

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All the glory for salvation belongs to God, He has done all that was necessary for the salvation of a man, including the granting of the gift of repentance . Repentance is given furnished in and through Christ because it was necessary for mans Salvation experience. There's a verse that says with Christ, God freely gives us all things Rom 8:32

32 He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not with him also freely give us all things?

So with Christ He gives repentance Acts 5:31;11:18

The word grant or give in these verses is the word didōmi and means:
to supply, furnish, necessary things


So is repentance necessary for the Salvatiion experience ? Absolutely, its necessary for repentance to be towards God Acts 20:21

Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.

Acts 17:30
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

But no worries since through Christ God furnishes, supplies this needed repentance repentance, and it will be applied by Christ.

Christ is a full Saviour !19
 
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Brightfame52

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Are Faith and Repentance evangelical truths that must be preached ? The answer is absolutely yes, Jesus said Lk 24:47

And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

So its no doubt that sound Gospel preaching includes repentance. However where men go wrong is when they make repentance and or faith conditions for Justification before God ! They say that men and women for whom Christ died are not justified, made righteous before God without them ! They are in essence saying that everything Christ did for them in His Person and Work fell short in making them righteous/justified before God.
 
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Brightfame52

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In Gospel preaching, instead of faith/repentance being conditions man must perform in order for God to justify them or make them righteous, they are to be acknowledged and received as Spiritual Blessings from Christ being risen as their Savor, along with remission of sins, as Peter points out in his sermon Acts 5:31

Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.


The greek word give is the the verb didōmi and means:


  1. to give something to someone

    1. of one's own accord to give one something, to his advantage

      1. to bestow a gift


  1. to supply, furnish, necessary things

    The giving of these things are necessary in constituting Christ a Savior from sin !

    Faith and Repentance are necessary furnishings to do the will of God !2
 
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Brightfame52

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Now some might say that the verse Acts 5:31 doesn't say anything about Christ the Savior giving Faith, but only Repentance to Israel [Gods Elect People]. Thats no problem however because Gospel evangelical repentance contains faith, for this repentance acknowledges, embraces the Truth 2 Tim 2:25

In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth

Notice that the word give here is the same word give in Acts 5:31 when its stated God gives repentance to Israel, but here in the 2 Tim 2:25 verse repentance is clarified in that it gives the acknowledging of the Truth.

I Titus 1:1 its recognized as the Faith of Gods Elect

Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;

So contrary to what mans religion teaches, that faith and repentance are conditions men perform in order to get justified or righteous before God, they are gracious gifts given by the Savior when He saves them, wherein they evidence Christ has saved them !4
 
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Brightfame52

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When religionist make faith or repentance or anything else for that matter conditions man must meet in order to get saved or justified before God they do disparage the death and blood of Christ ! What they are saying whether they know it or not is Christs blood alone was inadequate to Justify them for whom it was shed. This does contradict Rom 5:9

Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.6
 
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Brightfame52

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When religionist make faith or repentance or anything else for that matter conditions man must meet in order to get saved or justified before God they are introducing works into the equation. These acts or human actions become equal determinants for Salvation/Justification which robs Christ of His Glory and gives prideful man an occasion to boast !8
 
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Brightfame52

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When religionist make faith or repentance or anything else for that matter conditions man must meet in order to get saved or justified before God they are denying that Salvation/Justification is a free gift of Gods Grace. Thats in contradiction to Rom 3:24

24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:

Rom 5:16

16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. 10

The free gift is unto Justification !
 
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