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During the Last Supper, Jesus makes two statements about the End Times/His coming kingdom that are invariably swept under a rug because people either dont understand what He said or refuse to believe the implications of what He said. The first statement is captured in all three of the synoptic Gospels:
But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Fathers kingdom. (Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18 NASB)
If it is recorded that Jesus did in fact drink of the fruit of the vine after that dinner, which is not limited to wine, but also its derivatives, then the Church needs to reconsider its whole approach to preaching the Gospel. For, if biblical texts document Jesus drinking of the fruit of the vine again after this statement, then one of only two options is left to the Church. The first is that He did drink it but that He didnt drink it in His Fathers kingdom, as He said He would. This option leads to the conclusion that He was not God in the flesh, and therefore the Church should convert to Judaism and await the coming Messiah, for Christ could not be God and have made such a slip, even if by only a sip. His perfection would be tainted, the perfect sacrifice now imperfect and unable to atone for humankinds fall.
The second option is that Christ was, in fact, God Almighty in the flesh, that He hadnt made a mistake, that He went to all the trouble of dealing with blood, sweat, blistered feet, and humanitys cruelty, that He/God meant what He said (from His own mouth) and that if it is documented in scripture that He did drink of the fruit of the vine after that statement, then He did in fact drink it new with them in His Fathers kingdom. This option presupposes that Christ, God in the flesh, knew what He was saying and that He was making a very specific claim: if His disciples saw Him drink fruit of the vine again, the kingdom promised throughout the history of the Israelite nation was in full swing at the time of that swig.
Before we can answer if Jesus drank the fruit of the vine again after the Last Supper, we must understand what fruit of the vine is. Fruit of the vine not only includes wine, it includes vinegars, sour wines, and even grape juice. Vinegars can further be split into subgroups including cider vinegars, which can be used as environmentally friendly cleaners, wine vinegars (most commonly used vinegar in Mediterranean countries), some pleasant enough to be used as elegant salad dressings. While wine is a fruit of the vine, it is not equal to fruit of the vine, because it is not synonymous with vinegar. And God forbid wine be confused with grape juice. But nonetheless, all three are fruit of the vine. Why is this important? Because the Gospel of John documents that Jesus not only drank fruit of the vine after the Last Supper, He asked for it.
After this, Jesus, knowing that all things had already been accomplished, to fulfill the Scripture, said, I am thirsty. A jar full of sour wine [vinegar (KJV)] was standing there; so they put a sponge full of the sour wine upon a branch of hyssop and brought it up to His mouth. Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, It is finished! And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit. John 19:28-30 NASB
Didnt He know that the sour wine they offered Him was fruit of the vine? For Christians, this is a hard passage. For non-Christians, it is simply another example of a contradiction in the Bible that they claim the Bible is riddled with.
May God have mercy on us all if either is the case.
What if, as another possibility, it wasnt a mistake on the part of the Son of Man on that cross? What if He really was God Almighty and actually asked for that drink, knowing they would provide a derivative of grape? What if He, being God, foreordained the proximity of that jar of sour wine? What if He had attended a crucifixion a time or two and knew that vinegar was kept nearby during these events? Christians and non-Christians alike need to consider the ramifications of this possibility.
So now we have confirmed that Jesus did just what He said He wouldnt do unless He did it in His Fathers kingdom. The problem for us is that He didnt just make that one confusing statement during the Last Supper. He made another equally confusing statement in Lukes Gospel.
And when the hour had come He reclined at the table, and the apostles with Him. And He said to them, I have earnestly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer; for I say to you, I shall never again eat it [a Passover meal] until it is fulfilled in the kingdom of God. Luke 22:14-18
So, just as I asked did Jesus ever drink fruit of the vine again after the Last Supper, I ask did He ever eat a Passover meal again with His disciples after the Last Supper, which as Luke documented was held on the first night of Passover (Luke 22:7-8). And for those unfamiliar with Jewish tradition, the Passover is not a single night event, it is a seven day celebration, most clearly described as such in Ezekiel 45, where is reads:
In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall have the Passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten. Ezekiel 45:21
So the question is, does the Bible document Jesus eating anything with His disciples within the six to seven day window following the Last Supper. If it does, it is not by accident that Jesus chose to do so, and as such, He is telling us something because He is in fact partaking again of a Passover feast with His disciples, which He said He wouldnt do unless it was fulfilled in the kingdom of God. And in fact the Bible does clearly document Jesus doing just that, eating with His disciples after the Last Supper within this six day window. It was on His resurrection day (three days later) when He met His disciples in the upper room, documented in Luke 24:
And when He had said this, He showed them His hands and His feet. While they still could not believe it because of their joy and amazement, He said to them, Have you anything here to eat? They gave Him a piece of a broiled fish; and He took it and ate it before them. Luke 24:40-43
It should be noted, Jesus eating anything with them constitutes continuing the Passover with them. Note again here that He asks for something to eat. It is not by accident that He does so, just like with His drinking of the fruit of the vine on the cross. So I ask you as Christians, if Jesus made these very particular statements during the Last Supper, and then did the very things He points out in those statements, should we not as His followers take note of them and seek to understand the ramifications of those words and not simply ignore them as the church has now done for 2000 years?
I think He told us by drinking the fruit of the vine on the cross and by eating day-four of the seven-day Passover meal that the kingdom He came and died for is here and now.
What are your thoughts?
Parts of discussion taken from Heresy, by Keith Swainson
But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Fathers kingdom. (Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18 NASB)
If it is recorded that Jesus did in fact drink of the fruit of the vine after that dinner, which is not limited to wine, but also its derivatives, then the Church needs to reconsider its whole approach to preaching the Gospel. For, if biblical texts document Jesus drinking of the fruit of the vine again after this statement, then one of only two options is left to the Church. The first is that He did drink it but that He didnt drink it in His Fathers kingdom, as He said He would. This option leads to the conclusion that He was not God in the flesh, and therefore the Church should convert to Judaism and await the coming Messiah, for Christ could not be God and have made such a slip, even if by only a sip. His perfection would be tainted, the perfect sacrifice now imperfect and unable to atone for humankinds fall.
The second option is that Christ was, in fact, God Almighty in the flesh, that He hadnt made a mistake, that He went to all the trouble of dealing with blood, sweat, blistered feet, and humanitys cruelty, that He/God meant what He said (from His own mouth) and that if it is documented in scripture that He did drink of the fruit of the vine after that statement, then He did in fact drink it new with them in His Fathers kingdom. This option presupposes that Christ, God in the flesh, knew what He was saying and that He was making a very specific claim: if His disciples saw Him drink fruit of the vine again, the kingdom promised throughout the history of the Israelite nation was in full swing at the time of that swig.
Before we can answer if Jesus drank the fruit of the vine again after the Last Supper, we must understand what fruit of the vine is. Fruit of the vine not only includes wine, it includes vinegars, sour wines, and even grape juice. Vinegars can further be split into subgroups including cider vinegars, which can be used as environmentally friendly cleaners, wine vinegars (most commonly used vinegar in Mediterranean countries), some pleasant enough to be used as elegant salad dressings. While wine is a fruit of the vine, it is not equal to fruit of the vine, because it is not synonymous with vinegar. And God forbid wine be confused with grape juice. But nonetheless, all three are fruit of the vine. Why is this important? Because the Gospel of John documents that Jesus not only drank fruit of the vine after the Last Supper, He asked for it.
After this, Jesus, knowing that all things had already been accomplished, to fulfill the Scripture, said, I am thirsty. A jar full of sour wine [vinegar (KJV)] was standing there; so they put a sponge full of the sour wine upon a branch of hyssop and brought it up to His mouth. Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, It is finished! And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit. John 19:28-30 NASB
Didnt He know that the sour wine they offered Him was fruit of the vine? For Christians, this is a hard passage. For non-Christians, it is simply another example of a contradiction in the Bible that they claim the Bible is riddled with.
May God have mercy on us all if either is the case.
What if, as another possibility, it wasnt a mistake on the part of the Son of Man on that cross? What if He really was God Almighty and actually asked for that drink, knowing they would provide a derivative of grape? What if He, being God, foreordained the proximity of that jar of sour wine? What if He had attended a crucifixion a time or two and knew that vinegar was kept nearby during these events? Christians and non-Christians alike need to consider the ramifications of this possibility.
So now we have confirmed that Jesus did just what He said He wouldnt do unless He did it in His Fathers kingdom. The problem for us is that He didnt just make that one confusing statement during the Last Supper. He made another equally confusing statement in Lukes Gospel.
And when the hour had come He reclined at the table, and the apostles with Him. And He said to them, I have earnestly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer; for I say to you, I shall never again eat it [a Passover meal] until it is fulfilled in the kingdom of God. Luke 22:14-18
So, just as I asked did Jesus ever drink fruit of the vine again after the Last Supper, I ask did He ever eat a Passover meal again with His disciples after the Last Supper, which as Luke documented was held on the first night of Passover (Luke 22:7-8). And for those unfamiliar with Jewish tradition, the Passover is not a single night event, it is a seven day celebration, most clearly described as such in Ezekiel 45, where is reads:
In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall have the Passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten. Ezekiel 45:21
So the question is, does the Bible document Jesus eating anything with His disciples within the six to seven day window following the Last Supper. If it does, it is not by accident that Jesus chose to do so, and as such, He is telling us something because He is in fact partaking again of a Passover feast with His disciples, which He said He wouldnt do unless it was fulfilled in the kingdom of God. And in fact the Bible does clearly document Jesus doing just that, eating with His disciples after the Last Supper within this six day window. It was on His resurrection day (three days later) when He met His disciples in the upper room, documented in Luke 24:
And when He had said this, He showed them His hands and His feet. While they still could not believe it because of their joy and amazement, He said to them, Have you anything here to eat? They gave Him a piece of a broiled fish; and He took it and ate it before them. Luke 24:40-43
It should be noted, Jesus eating anything with them constitutes continuing the Passover with them. Note again here that He asks for something to eat. It is not by accident that He does so, just like with His drinking of the fruit of the vine on the cross. So I ask you as Christians, if Jesus made these very particular statements during the Last Supper, and then did the very things He points out in those statements, should we not as His followers take note of them and seek to understand the ramifications of those words and not simply ignore them as the church has now done for 2000 years?
I think He told us by drinking the fruit of the vine on the cross and by eating day-four of the seven-day Passover meal that the kingdom He came and died for is here and now.
What are your thoughts?
Parts of discussion taken from Heresy, by Keith Swainson