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1 Corinthians 15:45 suggests a chronological connection between Adam and Jesus. It says, “... it is written, ‘The first man Adam became a living being’; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.” There is enough in the Bible to at least suggest that the “last Adam” is Jesus. One wonders, though, why this Verse refers to Jesus as “the last Adam.” To what purpose?
Neither appear to be alike. Adam was made from the dust in the ground, according to Genesis 2:7. Jesus was conceived “from the Holy Spirit,” as it says in Matthew 1: 20. Adam sinned, but Jesus is perfect; he is immune to sin. So what’s with the “last Adam” Shpiel?
Is he referred to as the last Adam, because, perhaps, he is the last person having a direct relationship with God? Or could the reference to the last Adam be one of a new beginning?
John 1:1 strongly infers that Jesus was with God at “the beginning.” Also, “the beginning” referred to here is the same beginning as referred to in Genesis 1:1. So, Jesus actually existed before Adam. Although some suggest that 1 Corinthians 15:45 is fortified by Job 19:25, Jesus was standing at the ‘first’ as well, albeit it not on earth yet.
Perhaps it was important to distance the Jesus who stood on earth from the Jesus who stood in Heaven, and in this regard, to avoid equating Jesus with earthly man, he is referred to as an Adam. If so, to what purpose? Seems that by the time 1 Corinthians 15:45 is laid out, it is known of the distinction between Jesus and man, including the man Adam. 1 Corinthians 15:45 may suggest not to think of Jesus of Heaven as the same as Jesus on earth. But that seems as absurd as to not think that the fictional Superman who flies through the air is not the same as the fictional Superman who stands on the ground.
Something else to ponder...how could “the last Adam” be a life-giving spirit when it is clear that Adam was a man devoid of such power? In terms of the use of “Adam,” seems that something got lost in the translation. Perhaps Paul used the word “beginning” in the first and the last, but through the years it evolved into Adam. But if Paul really meant Adam, then the significance doesn’t seem to be apparent.
Neither appear to be alike. Adam was made from the dust in the ground, according to Genesis 2:7. Jesus was conceived “from the Holy Spirit,” as it says in Matthew 1: 20. Adam sinned, but Jesus is perfect; he is immune to sin. So what’s with the “last Adam” Shpiel?
Is he referred to as the last Adam, because, perhaps, he is the last person having a direct relationship with God? Or could the reference to the last Adam be one of a new beginning?
John 1:1 strongly infers that Jesus was with God at “the beginning.” Also, “the beginning” referred to here is the same beginning as referred to in Genesis 1:1. So, Jesus actually existed before Adam. Although some suggest that 1 Corinthians 15:45 is fortified by Job 19:25, Jesus was standing at the ‘first’ as well, albeit it not on earth yet.
Perhaps it was important to distance the Jesus who stood on earth from the Jesus who stood in Heaven, and in this regard, to avoid equating Jesus with earthly man, he is referred to as an Adam. If so, to what purpose? Seems that by the time 1 Corinthians 15:45 is laid out, it is known of the distinction between Jesus and man, including the man Adam. 1 Corinthians 15:45 may suggest not to think of Jesus of Heaven as the same as Jesus on earth. But that seems as absurd as to not think that the fictional Superman who flies through the air is not the same as the fictional Superman who stands on the ground.
Something else to ponder...how could “the last Adam” be a life-giving spirit when it is clear that Adam was a man devoid of such power? In terms of the use of “Adam,” seems that something got lost in the translation. Perhaps Paul used the word “beginning” in the first and the last, but through the years it evolved into Adam. But if Paul really meant Adam, then the significance doesn’t seem to be apparent.