DavidPT
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- Sep 26, 2016
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You know what's funny. This passage refers to the return of the Jews after the Babylonian exile. And we see that the Jews later went into exile again after the Romans defeated the city. Why? Because they broke the covenant. The old covenant is over.
Assuming that is true, and the fact God is the speaker in that passage, why did God flat out lie then? There is no way that---they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them---equals this---This passage refers to the return of the Jews after the Babylonian exile. And we see that the Jews later went into exile again after the Romans defeated the city.
The only way to not contradict what God said in Amos 9:14-15 is by interpreting that passage to mean post 70 AD, and certainly not after the Babylonian exile instead. Your interpretation of that passage makes God a liar since He plainly said--they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them---if after they are back in their land and they are pulled up out of their land which He has given them.
If you still disagree then prove that passage said this---they shall be pulled up out of their land which I have given them---rather than this---they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them. Or prove how those mean the exact same thing.
As to that passage, my translation records it like such.
Amos 9:14 And I will bring again the captivity of my people of Israel, and they shall build the waste cities, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof; they shall also make gardens, and eat the fruit of them.
15 And I will plant them upon their land, and they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them, saith the LORD thy God.
Your translation apparently records it as such instead, or maybe it's not your translation doing that, it is your interpretation of that passage doing that. IOW, taking away from what it plainly says. And since it is impossible for God to lie, He is not going to say He will plant them upon their land, and they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which He has given them, then do the exact opposite, pull them up out of their land which He has given them, since that would make Him a liar, not someone that can't lie.
Amos 9:14 And I will bring again the captivity of my people of Israel, and they shall build the waste cities, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof; they shall also make gardens, and eat the fruit of them.
15 And I will plant them upon their land, and they shall be pulled up out of their land which I have given them, saith the LORD thy God.
By you interpreting that passage to involve the return of the Jews after the Babylonian exile proves you are interpreting that passage in a literal sense. Therefore, you are without excuse when you insist God ended up doing the opposite of what He said He was going to do, that He pulled them out of their land which He has given them, after He had planted them upon their own land, thus making God out to be a liar in verse 15.
Why would any Christian who already knows good and well that it is impossible for God to lie, want to interpret something He plainly said, in such a manner that it makes Him out to be a liar rather than someone that can't lie?
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